I was wondering why, seeing as baptism was not performed in Old Testament times, John the baptist started to baptize people to symbolize their repentance. I know in the New Testament Jesus instructs people to be baptized in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, but John came before Jesus.

I just read about something called “Transdispensationalism”. Have you heard of it? It can sound convincing to those of us who see our Heavenly Father as loving and desiring that none be lost. I trust your opinion and all scripture that will apply.

Why did Jesus speak of raising up those who believe in Him on the last day? Doesn’t the rapture come at least 7 years before the last day? Also, is the New Jerusalem populated only by the Church, or will Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob have residence there. It’s difficult to believe they will live on the new earth but have no permanent home in the Eternal City.

I believe that to go in the rapture you must believe there will be one. How can anyone expect to receive something when they don’t believe it exists? The rapture fighters and non believers will get what they believe in. I pray and hope all will come to believe in the catching away of the saints, but I firmly believe you must believe it to receive it. What say you?

Recently I was reading several of the letters on your site and where you said that only about 10% of the people in Church today are really saved. I am curious as to how you arrived at that percentage. I have always felt that some of the people who were born and raised in the church didn’t get it. I think I ‘ve had a couple of preachers along the way who didn’t get either, but 90% seems high.

Where are those who died before Christ? Such as David, Moses, or any Jew or gentile ( assuming that they were saved). Are their spirits with the Lord? And will they be reunited with bodies at The Rapture like The Church dead will be? I read that The Rapture is for The Church solely. Yet from my own studies I can’t find out . All I am clear on is that The Church , both the living and the dead, will be raised and caught up.

I read Deuteronomy 13:6-18, and I wondered whether was Moses speaking as a man or for God. In my mind there’s no room to believe that our all-loving Father is inciting people for such a violence. What do you think?

I have enjoyed your article on the Lord’s Prayer. And though we, as believers, may call him “Father”, that is not His name. I first began this email by intending to cite scriptures where it mentions His wanting us to know Him by His name, but there were just too many of them. His name is YHWH. Some pronounce it “Jehovah”, but since there was no letter “J” in the Hebrew language, we call Him Yahweh. (The same is true of “Jesus” whose real Hebrew name was/is “Yeshua”.) Of course, this name was deleted from almost all scriptures and substituted with “LORD” because it was considered too sacred to pronounce. But, He wants the world to know His name and use it. So, when we pray “hallowed be thy name,” we are speaking of His name YAHWEH.

Recently I came across an atheist website that argued against God by saying an omnipotent God is impossible. Their line of reasoning went something like this:

If God were truly omnipotent in an absolute and unlimited sense, then God could be capable of both existing and not existing at the same time, meaning that every form of theism and every form of atheism would be equally justified at all times simultaneously. Such a God could be capable of informing humans of certain requirements for attaining heaven and avoiding hell but actually holding to entirely different requirements without ever actually lying.

I have seen numerous explanations by theologians to this argument. However, I have come to the following conclusion, theologians who say it is impossible for God to do anything that it is logically impossible to do are wrong because quite frankly God transcends logic. The only reason we know anything at all about the loving creator is because he is merciful enough to reveal himself to us through his word. What is your take on this argument by atheists and by my answer?