What is the meaning of the original word when the Bible talks about eternal punishment/damnation? Does the original word really mean “eternal”? I heard many times about this “aeons after aeons”. Can we really equate them with eternity? What do you think about 1 Tim. 4:10 that “God is the Savior of all men, specially of them that believe” ? If God will be all in all, can this include an eternal lake of fire filled with condemned beings?

I understand from your website that you are of the OSAS opinion/belief. I am a bit confused on this issue, but I do hope that perhaps it may be the case, it does give some hope for the likes me.

Given that I am a former minister and during my time as a minister I hit my wife on more than occasion and leaving ministry because of this, falling into drug use, adultery, alcoholism and defaming Christ using the most filthy language and curses; I hope most earnestly that there is grace even for men of my kind, with or without OSAS.

I have question about Genesis 18 and the three angels that visited Abraham at Sodom and Gomorrah. One of them was the LORD (God). How is it that Abraham was able to look upon the face of God? My understanding is that no one can look upon the glory of God.

Who are God’s children? Is it only believers? As always, thank you for your time and wisdom.

While re-reading Luke a question popped up regarding the relationship between John the Baptist and Jesus. How could they be cousins if one was from Levi and the other Judah? Had marriage between tribes become a more normal occurrence? Or just an accepted practice in Judah after the split from Israel.

I have a question about Mark 2:10 “But that you may know that the Son of Man has power on earth to forgive sins”. I understand that Jesus had to be made like us to be our kinsmen redeemer, I am wondering why he had the power to forgive sins as a man? Would it be more accurate to say he had to be made like Adam? If so, did Adam have the authority to forgive sins as well?

I have a question about a saved parent being the covering for the child as Paul said in 1 Cor. 7:14. Does this mean children who have at least one saved parent are saved?

What does 1 John 4:2-3 imply? Does it mean that only saved believers can utter these words? Or is it meant to be some type of test to see if one is a believer? Also in 1 John 4:15 the same questions. Can an unsaved person really say this without believing really? Therefore how can one know for sure if he really means it when he/she says “I confess that Jesus is the Son of God and he has come in the flesh?”

I have a friend who came to know Jesus several years ago. Now after getting some information off the internet he will only call Jesus “Yeshua”. He tells me that “Jesus” is a false name with pagan origins and therefore Jesus and Yeshua are two different people. He claims that people who worship “Jesus” are worshiping a false Messiah and are deceived. While those worshiping Yashua worship the true Messiah of the Bible. What are the origins of “Jesus” so I can explain to him that Jesus is His name and Yeshua is the Jewish way to say it.

I was reading your perspective of Revelation, and in chapter 6 you say: “After the true Church is gone, those who also call themselves the church, but have been left behind, won’t have much trouble at all accepting Islam.” Can you please explain why people will switch to Islam after the rapture? Wouldn’t the rapture be proof of Jesus and Christianity?