In Matthew 15:26 and Mark 7:27 the Lord Jesus referred to Jews as “children” and to the Gentiles as “dogs”. In Romans 10:12, Galatians 3:28 and Colossians 3:11 I read “there is no difference?” What brought about the change?

What are your views on the theory that the mark on the forehead and in the hand might be the Muslim prayer bump and a sword. This coupled with the contention that 666 was a mistranslation of letters which very closely resemble “praise be to Allah” which appears on Muslims head/arm bands makes me wonder.

Re: Mark 9:38-41. “Teacher,” said John, “we saw a man driving out demons in your name and we told him to stop, because he was not one of us.” “Do not stop him,” Jesus said. “No one who does a miracle in my name can in the next moment say anything bad about me, for whoever is not against us is for us. I tell you the truth, anyone who gives you a cup of water in my name because you belong to Christ will certainly not lose his reward.”

In this passage John appears concerned about some nonbelievers (“not one of us”) casting out demons in Jesus’ name, and tells them to stop. Jesus rebukes them for doing so, and goes on to imply some church recognition of these (apparent) nonbelievers (“for whoever is not against us is for us”). Is Jesus indicating there is a reward for nonbelievers friendly/helpful toward the Church and it’s members? Am I reading this correctly?

My question regards the teaching of Jesus in John 6:51-58. I hear Catholics say that they are taking these verses literally. Hence at their communion ceremony they are only following the word of God. And if they are using these words to their literal meaning, then the rest of us are not. And, we are supposedly the ones who believe in a literal translation of the Bible. So what is Jesus really saying here? How would I respond to a Catholic on this point?

You have stated that you feel the post rapture believers will be on their own when it comes to staying faithful to their belief in Christ as their Lord and Savior. In Revelation (7: 1-9) it says that the Angel of God will put a seal on the foreheads of the “servants of God”. It goes on to show that the 144,000 from the 12 tribes (Jews) were at least part of this group, but then it moves right into discussing the “multitude” in white robes that were “serving God and The Lamb” day and night.

I believe the multitude are the tribulation Saints and that they are being included in the group that were sealed on their foreheads by the Angel of God, identifying them as “servants of God”. Also, I don’t think the gentile Christians during this period would be left to suffer the stings of these demonic creatures of Rev. 9 so they must have the seal. In summary; I believe that the tribulation believers will not be able to lose their salvation. Do you disagree with this?

The other week a friend of mine asked me to pray for her and I said I would. I really want to but will God answer a prayer if I haven’t asked for forgiveness of all the sins I have committed since the last time I confessed my sin? I want to pray over so many things but I feel like I can’t until I have asked for forgiveness first. Part of the reason I stop my daily bible reading and prayer time is because I feel it turns into a habit with no meaning. When I do confess my sin daily I don’t “feel” it. I do it because I know I should. I hope I am making sense.

Recently my church, as well as several radio Bible study programs that I listen to, have been teaching about how God’s judgment begins in the house of the Lord. They all say that we need to live according to God’s commands or we face being judged. I thought we Christians have had all our sins judged already.

When we confess our sins to God, are we to be specific? Or maybe say something like “I confess I am a sinner and ask you to forgive my sins and wash me clean with the blood of my Beloved Jesus”? The thing is, I try to confess when I pray, but sometimes I can’t think of everything I need to confess. Please don’t get me wrong. I know I’m a sinner and have probably done many things I just don’t remember. How specific do we need to get?

What does the Bible say about drinking alcohol? Also, do we know for a fact that the wine Jesus made was fermented?

I have always heard men talk about the teaching of the Immanency of Christ’s return; that he can return at any moment and that there aren’t any “signs” that have to occur first. I really don’t understand this. It seems to me that, there were some signs and are others still, that have to happen before the Lord returns for us at the Rapture.

For example, didn’t Israel have to be reestablished as an independent nation again, first? If so, then throughout prior church history until Israel was a nation again, how could his return have been imminent? One other example is the battle described in Ezek.38-39. This battle can’t happen until, as Ezek.38:14 says, it happens “In that day when my people of Israel dwell safely,”. They are not dwelling safely (or securely) today. They are attacked frequently. I really can’t see how the doctrine (or teaching) of Imminence can stand. Do you have any views on this?