I have read that the office of Apostles and Prophets are not needed today as everything we need to know about the future is answered in scripture. How can we know that personal prophecies are real?

I remember reading somewhere that the High Priest would remove the Ark of the covenant from the Holy of Holies during an evil king’s reign and then return it during a righteous Kings reign. 2 Chronicles chapter 29 hints at this. Was this a common practice? If so, would that indicate a “hiding” place somewhere other than the Temple itself?

I heard Israel’s last righteous king Josiah had the Ark returned to the Temple during his reign as well, yet I haven’t found the supporting scripture. These items are not listed as part of the inventory given of what the Babylonians carried off. Could these items have been hidden and not destroyed with the temple?

What does the Bible say about dreams? How are they important, in both prophetic and “day-to-day” purposes?

I’m having trouble understanding Romans 10:17. It says, “Faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the Word of God. Why didn’t Paul just say “Faith comes by hearing the Word of God”?

I read your response to that question, and have to say, I asked the Lord to reveal my spiritual gift, and after many years, I still have no idea what it is! I study Bible prophecy because I’m “obsessed” with it, as some in my former church would say, but I know there is only one Prophet, Priest, and King, so what else is missing? I’ve begun to wonder if I’m really saved because of God’s silence, but I Cor. 2:14 says I would not be able to understand, or accept God’s word as truth if I were unsaved. I tried fasting, but risked my health because I am diabetic and must not skip meals. I tried those surveys, but ended up more confused. Please help me understand just what use God has for me (if any).

While subbing in a Sunday School class a member declared that Allah and The God of the Bible were the same. He said that Muslims, Christians, and Jews worship the same God by other names. I know that Allah arises out of the pagan gods of Babylon but I need back-up proof when I challenge that statement. Can you help me once more?

In the article (The 3 Questions Of Matt. 24) a statement was made: “the absence of any reference to the Church shows us that we won’t be here during the time He was talking about.”

How do you validate this principle of omission as truth? It certainly is not found in the Bible as a teaching. If it is, tell me where. I can use that principle anywhere in the Bible and it proves nothing, it seems to me to be only conjecture. Not everybody that witnessed the events in the Bible were mentioned by the writers. Therefore it wasn’t important enough to know or God did not want us to know. Some things are a mystery and should stay that way unless there is positive proof of subsequent revelation in the Bible.

I have been reading your section on spiritual gifts & I know from reading the Word that, as a Christian, I have a gift. How do I find out what my gift is? The church I attend is “big” on speaking in tongues & at one time I thought I had received this gift – not so sure anymore. The one I desire is the gift of prophecy … is that desire indicative of prophecy being my gift? Any insight would be appreciated. By the way, I assume teaching is your gift?

One pastor recently said,

“In the Millennium, we who will be raptured will live in earthly mansions that are already on Earth, and the first preferences of occupying them are ours as rulers with Christ!”

Is this true? According to 1 Thes. 4:16-17 and 1 Corinthians 15:52 – after Rapture, we will be in glorified spirit bodies which do not require physical accommodations on earth, right? We can be anywhere in the universe in a split second. It is mentioned in the Scripture that the Lord Jesus, after resurrection, appeared at least eleven times. There is no record of the Lord Jesus having a physical accommodation all these times. I believe spirit bodies do not require any accommodation as the Lord did not have a residential address after resurrection, until ascension.

I have heard that Mark 16:9-20 does not belong in the Bible. When I looked this up on the internet, it would appear that many people hold to that idea also but go on to say that the fact that it appears in most Bibles is no problem as it does not affect and doctrinal beliefs. Now, I’m no scholar nor do I even remotely have a handle on history but I would think that this would cause a problem.

Now, don’t get me wrong, I believe in God and his son Jesus and what he did on the cross, however, this gives me an uneasy feeling. The Bible is supposed to be inspired by God and yet there are verses placed in that were not in the original transcripts to begin with. So, where did they come from? How did they get there? Why was this allowed?