A quick question: in at least two of your studies you have used the expression “Let’s get mystical”. And in the study about the first miracle of Jesus, you go as far as saying that John (the apostle) was a mystic. Can you clarify this for me? I’ve always been under the impression that I should consider mysticism something wrong in the eyes of God, although I must admit I do not know a great deal about it.
I enjoy reading your extensive bible studies and use them as a study tool. Because I am human, some areas I have pause, but in areas of doctrine I believe, using the Bible as the only true measure, that our views parallel. Therefore I am very interested in how you view the reading of Jeremiah 30:6. Just this morning it struck me that this passage seems to be describing someone suffering from poison, esp poison gas, like sarin.
Why did Paul use the word “Gentiles” in Romans 11:25 when it is the Church he was referring to that would come into “fullness”? Shouldn’t it be “fullness of believers” since the Church consists of both Jews and Gentiles?
Why did the apostles choose to suffer a martyrs death? If Christ died once and for all for our sins, and bore all the suffering of mankind, why did they feel the need to be martyred? They were the closest to Christ, so shouldn’t they have best understood Christ’s message of “it is finished”? I don’t understand why they didn’t preach in hiding like what takes place in Muslim and communist countries today. It sounds like they believed in redemptive suffering- a Catholic concept.