In Matthew 6:3 what did Jesus mean when saying, “do not let your left hand know what your right hand is doing” when giving to the needy?

I’ve read different views and commentaries on the Book of Life plus Scripture and some of it sounds kind of “predestinationalist”.

In the Old Testament, people talked about “blotting out of names from the book that God had written. Is this the same as the “Lamb’s Book of Life”?

A passage in Rev. 13:8 NASB refers to those who’s name has not been written from the foundation of the World in the book of life of the Lamb who has been slain. I think it means the book of the Lamb who has been slain from the foundation of the world.

Anyway, would you comment on the “Book of Life”, when the names are there, whose they are, how they get there, do you have to be an overcomer to stay there? etc.

In the context of OSAS theory I would like to ask you why Ananias and Sapphira, who were husband and wife, instantly died while speaking lies before the disciples. Were not they within the fold of first century believers? Then, why they were not saved even after speaking lies?

I was surprised to learn your view that John had recorded the “cleansing of the Temple” out of order. There were two cleansings to indicate two points. In the first Jesus said it was His Fathers Temple, at the beginning of His ministry. While in the second cleansing at the end of His ministry, He says “your temple” indicating the departure of the Holy.

While the prophets were 100% accurate when predicting the Messiah’s first advent and the situations surrounding it, the people of the day were more than likely thinking that the event and the Man and the circumstances were not much like they were described to be by the saints of old. By the same token, why are we to believe that the circumstances surrounding the second advent are going to be anything different?

The Son of God became the Son of Man. I know Jesus became a man. But why was He called the Son of Man? Please help me understand the meaning of this term.

I always hear we are free from the law. I have understood that to be Jewish laws and traditions, not the 10 Commandments, since if that were true we would be free to murder or commit adultery. We have Christ saying I come to fulfill the law but also we are free from the (condemnation) law.

There is a duality here that no one can explain to me. Everyone admits we are free from the law yet everyone says we are to obey the (law) 10 commandments (except The Sabbath). Why do they exclude the Sabbath??

If the 10 commandments are in fact still applicable, why is observing the Sabbath not applicable, especially since it was first hinted at in Genesis, prior to the existence of Jews or Gentiles. I have understood the 10 commandments as establishing the relationship of man to man and God to man and to be somewhat eternal.

Recently, in looking at the Sabbath, I see the Authority of the Father in establishing the Sabbath but no authority to make our day of worship Sunday Frankly, I can’t see how the leap was made to Sunday.

Since God is omnipotent, omnicient and omnipresent then why would God need for any to guard his throne? Also what book, chapter and verse do people use to back this idea? I do not believe that the anointed cherub was doing that. I believe he was on the original earth overseeing it prior to Adam’s creation. What’s your take on this? I still need book, chapter and verse, because I’ve never found it in the holy bible.

I am on your website quite a bit. You always have some very insightful answers. I am having a difficult time at the moment, my cousin was murdered over the weekend and I am having such a difficult time coming to terms with this. She was only 35 years old and she was strangled by her boyfriend after they argued. He then hid her under her bed for two or three days. I trust in God’s plan but am having a difficult time accepting this. I know this is probably not the place to be bringing up this topic but I need to know how I can come to terms with such a horrific death of a young woman.

I have been studying Ezekiel 38 & 39. I have noticed that in 39:2 the King James translation says “and leave the sixth part of thee”. I do not see this in any of my other translations. Why do the other translations not give this information or why does the King James have this information in it? No one has address this in any of the books I have read. I would like to know your thought on this.