My friend says although in the temptation of Jesus in the wilderness it was legitimate when Satan offered the kingdoms of the world to Jesus, everything changed after the cross and because of Matthew 28:18 all the world, authority, and power was once again in Jesus ownership. I tried to explain that although this is true, the consummation of both our salvation, as well as His kingdom will occur in a future time – our bodies at our glorification and His kingdom at His second coming. Are there scriptures I can use to help him understand that Satan is still the god of this world and in control, as God allows him to be?

There are 4 riders of chapter 6 – although I wish to understand what the horses represent, I am more interested in who the riders are. I understand the first rider to be the Antichrist, but who are the other 3 riders, since “he” is used of all of them?

I am currently leading a study of the Torah with an effort to draw from Jewish Rabbinic teaching. I am finding the impact on translations into our language challenging. Genesis 1:2 (a) is a prime example. The first word of verse 2 is interpreted “And the earth” with the possibility of being “But the earth.” The second word is translated “was” while the Hebrew reads “she became.” Verse 2 when translated seems to read more like this given the Hebrew meanings: “But (or Now) the earth became chaos and vacant; and (now or but) darkness (was) over the abyss.” As you can see the meaning is much different than the English translations. While I want to be careful to remain faithful to the Word, it is a struggle, as I know there are those who translate in ways to justify their preconceptions. Can you give me any recommendations for a faithful translation of the Hebrew into English that is true to the Hebrew?

Re: Ishmaelites Or Midianites you wrote; “The Ishmaelites were descendants of Ishmael, a son of Abraham and Hagar (Genesis 16:1-16). The Midianites were descendants of Midian, a son of Abraham and Keturah, the wife he took after Sarah died (Genesis 25:1-2). Therefore the two groups were related and both being nomadic probably traveled together.”

I just finished reading this and was wondering if these two groups split at some point? If they did can you please point out where it is in the Bible? The reason I ask is because I was of the opinion that Islam came from the descendants of Ishmael the son of Hagar. Who would the descendants of the Midianities be or did the two groups become one?

I was reading 2 Cor. 12: 2-5 again where Paul speaks about a man that was caught up into the third heaven. I have always believed that Paul is speaking about himself although I had questions about why he would speak as if he is referring to the second person. My understand was recently challenged by an opinion of a friend who says Paul was perhaps more speaking about Stephen in Acts 7: 54-58 who when he was stoned saw heaven opening, Glory of God and Lord Jesus standing at the right hand of God. I have to be honest with you that this new view kept me thinking hence I ask for your view. Is Paul speaking about himself here or about Stephen perhaps? If he is speaking about himself then why he refers to himself as a second person?

I was studying Genesis chapter 37 and observed that Joseph’s brothers sold Joseph to the Ishmaelites (verse 26 and the end of verse 28). But there is a mention of Midianite merchants at the beginning of verse 28 and finally it seems like the Midianites are the ones selling Joseph in verse 36. I am a little confused, was Joseph sold to the Ishmaelites then sold again to the Midianites who then sold Joseph to Potiphar?

Re: 2 Timothy 2;3-4: “Join with me in suffering, like a good soldier of Christ Jesus. No one serving as a soldier gets entangled in civilian affairs, but rather tries to please his commanding officer.”

What did Paul really mean by “civilian affairs?” Is he talking about being involved in politics and other matters in the community that has nothing to do with the church, or something else? I’d appreciate your opinion on this.

I have a question concerning the difference between “believers” and “true believers” and the Rapture. I have many friends and relatives who believe that Jesus is the son of God and believe that he died on the cross for our sins, but they do not have Jesus as Lord of their lives and it seems they have no relationship or fellowship with Christ. According to John 3:16 will they be taken in the Rapture just based on their belief in Jesus or will they have to endure the Tribulation?

In a study I am doing there was a reference to Luke 17:7-10 as a reason to not only do God’s will but to do our own will for God. In another commentary it explains in these verses that no matter what what we do, even though it is through His will we are still only doing what God commands, and as such in the overall scheme we will always be unworthy. I would appreciate your opinion.

I have kind of a complicated question but you’ve never steered me wrong yet.

I’m a normal everyday type person who grew up in church, heard I was a sinner, (and knew I was one too) needed a Savior and that Jesus Christ died, was buried and rose again so I could be saved and I accepted Him as a Teenager based on that. Real simple.

Now, as an Adult I’m very well acquainted with the Word and being an avid reader am very interested in the spiritual. But now I have more questions than ever. I’ve never taken a theology course or read the Church Fathers until yesterday when I went through a little of an online Theology Course.

Wow! I guess I can summarize my question as this. Can a normal person who reads the Word be saved for sure? One cannot deny that the Word uses words like the elect, predestined, foreknew, persevere. Can one not be saved by just believing Jesus Christ just as He says to do? The book of John is full of the word believe. I’m finding out my simple faith is not so simple after all.