In one of your articles on the bride of Christ, you note that the Church is the bride, as many do. The reference you use in Ephesians 5 doesn’t seem to clarify that the church is the bride, although many state that the church is the bride. As I read Revelation 21:2 and 21:9 and 10 it would seem clear that the Holy City New Jerusalem is The Bride. Are there other scriptures where it states the Church is the Bride in no uncertain terms?

Quoting you: “The writer of Hebrews confirmed this in chapter 1, agreeing that when God wants to be visible, He appears as Jesus.” Here you’ve reminded me of a recent thought I had and would like to hear your opinion. In the old testament, prophets had visions of God sitting on His throne (e.g. Isaiah). Would this have actually been Jesus sitting on the throne in a recognizable bodily form; as we’re taught by Jesus that ‘God is a spirit’ and I presume that He hasn’t got ‘human form’?

Regarding your reply to “Divorcing an Unbeliever”. How do you reconcile what Paul says in the verses you quote (1Cor. 7:13,15,16) with what Jesus states unequivocally in Matt. 5:31,32? I feel that a lot of the time, Paul takes far too many liberties with what Jesus actually taught. I am interested in hearing your rationale in this instance.

I understand that no works are required for our salvation, but Romans 14:12 says that “each of us will give an account of himself to God”. Is this an accounting of our works, or will we simply stand in Christ’s salvation?

I believe that a person full of faith can be healed, if it is God ‘s will. But I don’t understand the importance of the oil mentioned in James 5:14-15. I see false teachers on TV selling oil napkins and promising healing. Is anointing with oil still in practice? And isn’t God glorified when a Godly old saint is called home to be with Him?

I’ve been following your teachings for several years and consider it part of my daily bread. About your reference to the believe and receive crowd, I would be interested in your thoughts on Mark 11:23.

I was wondering if you could shed some light and answers on some questions I have regarding divorce. After 20 long years, my unbelieving husband wants to leave me and wants a divorce. We’ve only kept the marriage going this long because 1 Corinthians 7 says I should stay in the marriage in case he eventually gets saved, and for the children who are now grown up. This week he admitted he wanted to leave me but we are in deep financial hardship and it’s best if I file for divorce as I can get legal aid with the costs, whereas he can’t. But if I file for the divorce, will it be as if I left him? Or, because he wanted to leave me anyway, it will not matter?

I have a question that I cannot seem to find an answer to and I hope you can help. Is there any scripture or inference in scripture that Lucifer may have been the first of the angelic beings created? Any light you can shed on this would be helpful.

In James (1:14) we read that “But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away by his own lust, and enticed.” which implies that we are ostensibly our own worst enemy. Meaning that the reason we sin is solely because of our own sinful nature and not because of some outside influence (the devil). However, in 1 Peter (5:8) we read “your adversary the devil, as a roaring lion, walketh about, seeking whom he may devour” and again in 1 John (4:4) we read “greater is he that is in you, than he that is in the world.” These two scriptures would imply that temptation by the devil does exist and that (at least some of) our sin IS due to the devil.

My question is regarding the Jews… I’m not convinced that those people in Israel right now are actually Jews… I think they have come from somewhere else and stolen the birthright…Can you help me to understand if they are or aren’t, please?