I have been studying Ezekiel 38 & 39. I have noticed that in 39:2 the King James translation says “and leave the sixth part of thee”. I do not see this in any of my other translations. Why do the other translations not give this information or why does the King James have this information in it? No one has address this in any of the books I have read. I would like to know your thought on this.

I was reading through John last night and had a question about John 3 v 13. “No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven-, the Son of Man.”

How can that be when in 2 Kings 2 vs 11 says; “And it came to pass, as they still went on, and talked, that, behold, there appeared a chariot of fire, and horses of fire, and parted them both asunder; and Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven.”

Jesus can’t be mistaken so how can this be? Elijah went up to heaven in the Old Testament prior to Jesus going up in the New Testament but yet Jesus said no one has ever gone into heaven except Him.

Where does the Bible say the Father, Son & the Holy Ghost is one person?

Where should a church be drawing the line in the use of visual arts in Christian worship?

Our worship director indicated that he is going to be bringing more visual arts into worship so that there are additional means for the range of worshipers to express themselves in worship since some make connections visually. He thinks our church is too focused on head knowledge and not enough on expressive worship.

When we came to Christ, we were thrilled to have a church where the Word of God of God and the Holy Spirit were the focus. One concern is whether the Word will be de-emphasized in any way through this move to the visual or the senses.

I don’t want to be overly dogmatic because I love expressive worship. I know we are cautioned about visual representations in worship through the second commandment. But honestly, I don’t know where the line should be drawn in this area. What are your thoughts?

I am a totally born again, sold out to God Christian. I know in my heart that Jesus is coming back soon. I dream about being able to boldly witness to the many people that God puts on my heart but when the time comes I just lose courage. So what I do is pray for their salvation instead. I am so discouraged about this. I do not want to stand before the Lord and have Him say that since I was ashamed of Him, he is ashamed of me. I would appreciate your counsel and prayers about this.

Jack, I can always count on you to answer my questions in a way which helps me to understand.

I am currently reading ‘The Problem of Pain’ by C.S. Lewis and in one respect, I am understanding and in another respect, I feel very confused. My mind is trying desperately to wrap around the concepts presented here.

In one regard, Lewis states that God did not create us to love Him, rather He created us so He could love us. In another section of the book, not much further along, Lewis states that God does not need us. Because He is perfect, He needs nothing outside of Himself. Rather, He has made Himself need us for our own sakes, because beings that we are, we “need to be needed” and so He “needs” us out of Love for us, a perfect Love.

I hope I am making sense and quoting Lewis correctly. This is how I understand it anyway.

My question is this: Does anything we do here make God happy? Does He ever look down on us and smile? For if He truly does not need us beyond us needing Him, then does anything we do really affect His opinion of us one way or another?

I know the Bible mentions our good deeds being rewarded, if they are truly unselfish and thoughtful deeds, without thought to one’s own self or how it will benefit us. But does this mean at all that God is proud of us, or that we please Him in any way?

I just sat and cried after reading the book, without truly knowing why. Part of me understands and yet part of us does not and I guess that scares me and confuses me. Thanks for any insight.

I’m enjoying your mp3 studies, but have a question. In John, the verse about Jesus leaving and preparing a place for us with his Father, who has many rooms… Isn’t he speaking to his deciples who are Jewish? Then if he is speaking to the Jews I’m confused because if I understood the studies corectly the Jews are going to be on Earth with God, and the Gentiles will be in heaven. Please help me see where I’m confused.

Abraham was ready to give Isaac but was no use as his blood was stained with sin, right? So, after 2000 years, God offered His Son, as per the covenant, on the same mountain??

Is the visible scar of the Lord on His wrists and legs and ribs?

Thank you so much for this website. It has been a tremendous help to me when I need to find an answer. I believe in prayer very much and have seen prayers answered, but if God already knows who will or won’t accept His plan of salvation and be saved, how can our prayers for a person’s salvation change anything?

Re: “A Question We’ve All Asked”

“The Book of Job is an example of the difference between Union and Fellowship. Job’s righteousness made him proud, a sin in God’s eyes. When Satan asked to torment him, God had to agree in spite of the fact that Job was one of the most righteous men on Earth, because he hadn’t confessed his sin. As long as Job relied on his own righteousness he was vulnerable to attack, and none of his complaints could change that, even though he remained a child of God. When he confessed, God put a stop to the torment and restored him. The lesson Job learned through his ordeal (and that we’re supposed to learn as well according to Romans 15:4) is that when we justify ourselves, we condemn God. Whenever we start thinking that we don’t deserve something bad that’s happening to us, we in effect accuse God of being unjust. It’s part of our human nature to look outside of ourselves for the blame, but it delays our reconciliation with God.”

It is a really good article but I am confused with the part that I have copied above.

I don’t see where Job did anything as of a sin when God let Satan put him through these trials and test. When I read the first part of Job it says that Job was blameless and upright and later when Satan use the first attack in verse 22 it says Job did not sin or accuse God of wrong. I see later in the story where Job may have gotten into self righteousness but as for that being the reason for the attack in the first place I see that is not the case. Can you show me where you see that this was what transpired to start the attacks on Job?