I have been a born again Christian for about 7 months now and have taken to the scriptures like crazy reading and learning. One thing I have not been able to clearly understand in all my reading so far is why man is God’s greatest creation. I understand we were made in His image and he actually breathed life into us but how are we actually a more prized creation than say angels for example? They have free will just as we do from what I understand, yet God gave us (man) a way to find redemption where as the angels did not after rebellion. Can you clarify how we are a more prized creation than any other?

You have written: “Our unconfessed sins can’t make God change His mind about saving us, but it can and does hinder our current relationship with Him. And because God is faithful to the promise He made to His Son, forgiveness is ours just for the asking. Once we ask, we’re immediately purified from all unrighteousness; we again become as holy as God is, our relationship is restored to its former intimacy and we are blessed.” But if we’re already forgiven why do we have to ask again?

During a recent discussion about the Apostles Creed, the question came up as to why Jesus descended into hell before He rose from the dead. One of the proposed answers was that it was so that Jesus could take the keys to hell and death from Satan. However, we are unable to locate any scripture to support this proposed answer. We do find that in Revelation 1:18, He has the keys to hell and death. When and how did He get them?

When Christ was on the cross and he looked at the Roman soldiers who were killing him and said, “Forgive them Father, for they know not what they do.” Does this mean that God forgave them and they will be in heaven or did he just forgive them for those sins and not the ones afterward?

Where do believers go after death? Do they go straight to heaven, or a lower level of heaven, or a waiting room? In 1 Thessalonians it talks about the dead in Christ rising. Where do dead believers rise from?

Comparing the references to water in John 3:5 and 1 John 5:6: The John 3:5 reference is considered by many (and I agree) to mean physical birth, yet the 1 John 5:6 reference is considered by some to mean baptism. I believe that 1 John was written, in part, to refute false teaching and to stress that Jesus did come in the flesh. Because of that, it seems that there would be consistency in the usage of the word ‘water’ between the two passages with each one referring to physical birth. Can you point out what I’m missing?

I was reading your answer about the 2 legs of the statue in Daniel that they were indicative of two Romes (I’ve also heard it taught that they are indicative of the two halves of the empire of the Seleucids) But I started wondering then, by that logic the chest and arms would also have to be representing three different parts of the Media-Persian empire, wouldn’t they?

Do you believe that when we celebrate Christmas we’re celebrating a pagan holiday? I believe it’s the celebration of our Savior’s birth. Am I committing a sin by doing so? Also, can you please tell me whether having a Christmas tree is committing a pagan ritual? Further, is wearing a cross or having one in your home also a sin … some say that it is worshiping an idol. I don’t understand this, as in my heart it is reminding me of what Christ has done for us. Please help.

Many people think of Christians as being arrogant because we believe that Jesus is the only way to salvation. In discussions with non believers; even those who are not hostile but curious and seeking, the question comes up about all the people throughout history who died never hearing about Jesus. I don’t know how to answer them.

It somehow bothers me that I agree with you so much. It must be your use of scripture that makes it so. The only time I question what you say is when you agree that your thoughts are pure speculation. Thank you so much for your ministry.

Baptism: I have been led to believe that nearly all, if not all of the translators, transliterate the Greek rather than translate it. If so, what should scripture say if the Greek is translated correctly?