I was reading an article by (a well known author) on the doctrine of election. He cites several passages that seem to indicate that we are not in any way in the process of deciding to follow Christ, but that He chose us, we didn’t choose Him. However, he didn’t finish the passage which continues, …”yet one of you is a devil.” I’ve always believed that it all boils down to somewhere in the middle of free will vs predestination. Could you please shed some light on this subject?

A non-believing friend asked me about something that I had never heard before and was wondering what your thoughts were on the subject. He said that the History Channel ran a segment about Judas and explained that the bible has been misinterpreted about Judas’s betrayal.

I even found a forum where a couple of people talk about it. They say that Judas’s intentions were good and he was just trying to make Jesus become the hero that Judas and everyone else thought he was going to be by rescuing them from the Romans. They even go as far as to say that Judas was just doing what Jesus had asked him to do. Also Judas’s suicide probably was not out of guilt but out of shame for being falsely accused.

In John10:34&35 the Bible says we will be as gods. What does this mean?

Thanks again for your wonderful work and Praise God for your talents and knowledge.

I was wondering if you could shed some some light on a verse for me.

” Your house and your kingdom will endure forever before me; your throne will be established forever.’ ” 2 Sam. 7, 16

I was talking to one of our Church elders last night, he was convinced that Queen Elizabeth 2’s roots can be traced all the way back to King David. I was in no position to argue. He said God made a promise to David that his Throne would endure forever. Could this be true? That would mean that the whole British Royal Family is Jewish?

Some Orthodox Jews claim that Daniel 9:24-27 was translated incorrectly by the Christian scholars. Hebrew “mashiach” has nothing to do with “the Messiah”. Is that correct?

I am 25yrs old and I did not grow up in a church environment so at 22yrs old I gave my life to the Lord. There’s a lot of things that I do not know and I have been studying on my own aside from what my church teaches. A lot of young adults my age are single and are struggling because we all feel like we are getting old and we are still single and most with no kids. Anyways I have been battling to know some truth behind this “unequally yoked” thing. I read your article and I went to 1 Cor 7:14 and 2 Cor 6:14-18. I only see text about a believer and a non believer is unequally yoked. My question is, what if your mate and you attend different churches due to different denominations? For example a Pentecostal and a Seventh Day Adventist? If you both believe that Jesus died for our sins etc, etc but certain things are believed different like the sabbath and eating fish and pork, etc does that make you too unequally yoked?

I was reading through the article you wrote regarding the Seven Churches of Rev. 2 and 3 (part 2, specifically). When speaking about the death of Tammuz and his mother’s 40 day mourning period, in parenthesis you stated that today it is referred to as Lent. Forgive me if I misunderstood your point, but since you went on to list other pagan influences I assumed that our modern day observance of Lent is also influenced by pagan rituals/beliefs. Since we are currently observing Lent, it bothers me to think that I am ignorantly participating in a pagan-based observance, rather than a Biblical one. Am I correct in inferring that Lent is indeed pagan-based, and that I should not be participating in it?

I have recently become legally separated and have to pay my wife maintenance (alimony), I am currently tithing on my gross income, which is a financial burden. Am I supposed to tithe on the money I pay my wife? Is she supposed to tithe on the amount she receives from me? If the answer to both questions is yes, isn’t this double tithing?

In response to the recent inquiry concerning Ezekiel 38 timing you quote Ezekiel “from that day forward Israel will know I am the Lord”. However, shortly after that, Israel will turn and worship the anti-christ. That doesn’t look like “from that day forward”. Am I misinterpreting here?

I’ve been reading accounts on a number of near death experiences and would like to ask: 1. Do you personally believe that such experiences are actual “visits” to heaven or hell? 2. Don’t you think they’d all have the same elements if they were real? (It seems that stories of alien abductions have more similarities than some of these alleged near death experiences.) I find a disturbing lack of consistency and some things that I simply cannot accept as either Godly or Biblical. Some accounts are outright blasphemous. Please give me your take on this issue. I’m very grateful for your help, and for this wonderful site.