I have a question about election vs. choice where our salvation is concerned. If only those who are elect can be saved that means millions of people were born who were given no choice in the matter of existing in a fallen form with a destiny to be damned. I do not see how this can be possible with a loving God!

I disagree with your suggestion that Jeremiah 49:23-27 was fulfilled during the Babylonian conquest. There are two primary reasons for this. 1.) Jer. 49:23 says that there is trouble on the sea, probably alluding to the Mediterranean Sea, and Nebuchadnezzar did not conquer from the sea. 2.) More convincingly is Jer. 49:25 that asks the rhetorical question, “Why is the city of praise not deserted, the city of My joy?” This city would be Jerusalem, and Jerusalem was destroyed during the Babylonian conquest.

I have a friend who has gone after the sin nature completely, and I am worried that he will bring about his early death. He has left his wife to live with a younger woman overseas, and he has also taken to drinking too much alcohol. He is a born again Christian but has totally walked away from the life of church although he still believes in GOD and loves your ministry which has given him license to do what he is doing. He knows that all his sins are forgiven past present and future. He seems to have an “I don’t care” attitude and wants to just enjoy himself until Jesus returns. He is believing that the rapture will save him from his “sins”.

I have heard people say: “All the Jews will be saved.” Is that true? If all the Jews will go to heaven, what about those that die today and tomorrow, before the rapture or before proving their faith in the tribulation period? Will they go to heaven or not? Isn’t Jesus the only “ticket” to the Father and Heaven?

Can you tell me more about the 7 year peace treaty? Between whom will it take place, when and will we be raptured before then? Is it the last thing to take place before the rapture?

I was wondering, if you could tell me, when scripture says in Matthew 24:40-41 about the ” one taken and the other left…” if this is about the Rapture or the sheep & Goat Judgement?

I was having a discussion with my Dad about when the Tribulation actually starts, and he doesn’t think that the first seal is the Anti-Christ confirming a covenant simply because it doesn’t use that exact wording, it only says that “he went out bent on conquering”. Is there any way to determine if the first seal is the signing of the covenant? I ask this because he believes we will at least see the signing of the covenant.

Our small group leader uses Zephaniah 2:2-3 to show that we’ll be raptured before the time of God’s wrath. He says lots of people miss this because we’re reading the translation from Hebrew. He said if we looked at the Greek text we would see the same Greek word for wrath that Paul used in 1 Thes. 5:9. What do you think?

First I enjoyed reading your series on Ezekiel 38-39, but one thing I don’t quite understand. How is it the Lord will reveal himself to Israel after Russia is defeated yet it’s not until the middle of Daniel’s 70th week that the Jews see the Anti-Christ for who he is?

In John 14 Jesus tells us that there are many mansions, or rooms, in His Father’s house, and that He is going there to prepare a place for us. I assume that the place Jesus is preparing for us is the New Jerusalem. Is this correct? It has been suggested to me that souls will not immediately go to be with the Lord after the body dies because Jesus isn’t finished preparing us a place. Supposedly, the idea is that there would be no place for them to stay, and it wouldn’t be fair for them to see or be in the unfinished place before the rest of us see it. Do you understand Jesus to be saying there are already mansions/rooms in heaven, or am I misunderstanding? And, if I am correctly understanding, who do you think might be in those rooms now?