I love your website and I visit it daily to read the various questions and answers as well as the articles. My question is in regard to the Bible translation The Message. My husband prefers it over any other version as he considers it easier to understand. From the few verses I’ve read, it doesn’t seem to read like NIV versions or NKJV versions. In fact, when my husband was asked to read a particular verse the pastor thought my husband wasn’t reading the correct one. Needless to say, it was slightly embarrassing. I was wondering your thoughts about this and whether or not it was okay for him to continue using it.

I just read an article by a pastor who is explaining the scripture where Jesus says “In my Father’s house there are many mansions. I go to prepare a place for you…” This pastor explains that “mansion” actually means “residence” or “resident”. A resident (as in a new doctor being a “resident” in a hospital) is actually a place of authority. So his understanding of this verse is that God has prepared a “place of authority” in his government for each of us and not a “large house” as most of us believe. I find this disappointing. What are your thoughts on this?

My husband and I have really enjoyed your teachings and they have caused us to grow and seek God more than ever. I am writing with a question regarding the view of “inclusivism” or “universalism”. Do you know anything about it? Is it Biblically sound? Our understanding of inclusivism is that Christ died for all and therefore all are saved, regardless of religion or belief system. This means we’ll be seeing Hindus and Muslims in heaven. Is this true?

I had an inquiry as to your understanding of Matthew 13:29. What is your take on the statement to not gather the tares because you may root up the wheat with them. I understand this will happen at the end of the age and I also understand we have free will to accept our Lord. It’s just kinda curious to me.

I have read the following on a web site and am wondering if the translations are correct. “There are two different Greek words that are translated as “temple” in English. One word “hieron” is used by Paul when referring to an actual building made with wood and stones. The other word “naos” is used when referring to the spiritual temple of God which refers to His people. The word “naos” is the one used in this 2 Thessalonians 2:4 verse, and therefore is NOT talking about a physical temple.”

I admire your knowledge and absolute faith and often find a great deal of comfort in your writings. But I have to ask….why do you believe….. do you ever have doubt? I think I believe, then I’ll read something, or watch an atheist/Christian debate on TV…and I become full of doubt. I long to be able to read/listen/watch these things and remain strong in my faith, but I always come away shaken and doubting. Thank you, I appreciate your site more than I can say.

I would like to ask you something concerning the Holy Ones who are mentioned in 1st Thessalonians 3:13. Many support the idea that they are those who have been raptured who now are coming with Jesus at His second coming at the end of the tribulation. If this is right that would mean that the words of the first part of the verse can apply only to those who will believe during the tribulation. Is this right?

There are some Christians at my Church who still tell coarse jokes more often than not, they lust openly, and talk about things they shouldn’t. They always want me to hang out with them, and have “fun”. Now, I have just recently came back to Christ, and they still expect me to be the old man I was. My question is this: I know we are saved by grace through faith, not based on works but on Jesus’s obedience alone, and once we are saved, we cannot be lost. However, shouldn’t they be showing some remorse here? Shouldn’t they who claim to be Christians, act like Christians?

Is 3 John 1:2 teaching health and wealth? “Beloved, I wish above all things that thou mayest prosper and be in health, even as thy soul prospereth.”

Re: Matt 2:13 and Luke 2:39. I’ve been trying to work out the timing for these two accounts. Luke has Joseph taking his family back to Nazareth after dedicating Jesus and fulfilling the purification requirements for Mary. Matthew tells us they went to Egypt.

I understand there’s an argument for the Magi coming to Bethlehem as much as two years after the birth. Did they they go to Nazareth for a while after Jesus was born, but then returned to Bethlehem for some reason and stayed there until the Magi showed up. What am I missing?