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I’ve been reading your “Ask a Bible Teacher” articles for a couple of months now and want to say thank you for all the time you put into this site. I have a question that has been on my heart and mind for a while now. I’ve understood ‘Praying in the Spirit’ to be following the leading of the Holy Spirit when we pray. (I’ve heard it said that praying in the Spirit is also speaking in tongues, but I’m not sure that’s entirely correct.) In Revelation 1:10. John says he was “in the Spirit” before hearing the loud, booming voice. Is this the same thing as praying in the Spirit? If not, what exactly does John mean when he says he was “in the Spirit”?

Can you help me to understand what the Lord is saying to us in Phil 2:6? The ESV renders it: “Who, though He was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped” yet the KJV renders it: “Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God.”

To me, the KJV rendering seems to suggest that Jesus had no problem with considering Himself (while as a man) to be equal with God. All the other versions I’ve read are similar to the ESV rendering in that He didn’t regard Himself that highly out of humility. Am I misreading something here? I honestly don’t know if He did or didn’t think this way of Himself. Thank you for your help. I am very thankful for the edifying ministry of this website!

Matt. 5:5 says, “Blessed are the meek, for they shall inherit the earth.” Do you know what Jesus meant by this verse?

A Bible Study by Jack Kelley

The fall is arguably the most important time of the year in Judaism. Three of Israel’s holiest days are celebrated then, and all in the space of 3 weeks. They are  Yom Teruah, also called the Feast of Trumpets, followed 10 days later by Yom Kippur,