I have a question regarding the Nephilim. I have been reading about Nephilim lately and I wonder why you feel so strongly that these were a byproduct of fallen angels and humans? I think if you better examine the grammar, you may come to a different conclusion. I don’t know what to think.
I found this article (a composite from several well known theologians) that contradicts your viewpoint, and I just wonder if you have considered this interpretation.
I was reading a response to a question another reader had submitted. It was talking about Noah’s time. I got to thinking-if the law wasn’t given to Moses until 1000+ years later, how did Noah understand the concept of clean and unclean? I cant find any scripture that refers to it, so I was wondering how Noah knew.
In the home study group I attend, we discovered that I was the only one who has become a member of our church. Everyone else has attended this church for at least three years, but no one else has made a commitment to join it. Other than Hebrews 10:25 that commands us not to cease having fellowship together, are there any places in the Bible that call for joining a particular congregation?
I truly admire and respect your knowledge, research, articles, and question/answer forum. You are AWESOME!! I just have a question that pertains to baptism, which is very personal for my family.
My two teen aged boys, and my ten-year old daughter were sprinkle-baptized in our church numerous years ago. But since that was before their age of accountability, I have been suggesting to them that they make this ultimate profession of their faith on their own (by being submerged). They are very receptive to this idea, but since we are not tied to any specific church, my wife suggested that I baptize them myself in our swimming pool. Although I know the verses that pertain to this symbolic ceremony, I am not legally ordained or qualified to perform this very important act of submission.
We discuss Bible events and prophecies more at home than we ever hear preached in the Church, but I do not feel that I am qualified. Do you think that I should leave this to professionals?
Thank you for being such a wonderful, shining light to sojourners awaiting to be brought back home soon!!
I have a friend who is struggling with some issues about salvation and hell. He asked me the other day if there truly is a hell, since he cannot imagine a loving God, full of mercy and Grace, leaving one of his own to suffer in eternal punishment. I think he is struggling with his own fear of not being saved. He does believe that Jesus died for him and paid for his sins, so I told him he was saved. But he replied that he had no different feelings after wards, like the born again experience some get, so my saying he is saved was not good enough for him. Are there any scriptures that I can use with him to better explain this?
I have a chance to go on a short-term missionary trip with my church and I want to go and even feel like I’m called to go. But my parents does not want me to go (I’m a college student). So in this case, does the commandment “honor thy parents” take precedence over Jesus’ command to “make disciples of all nations”?
Thank you for your insight! I glean your site 7 days a week. I was watching a well known Bible teacher on tv today, and he referred to 2 Thes. 2:3, and said that the “falling away” was the rapture of the Church. However, I looked up “falling away” in my Strong’s concordance, and # 646 says “Apostasia.” Am I missing something here?
My daughter sent the following in an email, and I’m not comfortable with my proposed answer. Help!
“I’m a little stumped about Numbers 26:59—“and the name of Amran’s wife was Jochebed, the daughter of Levi, who was born to Levi in Egypt,”—
Is this literally saying that Jochebed was Levi’s real daughter? Because that would put Jochebed, Amran and Moses, Aaron and Miriam about 400 years before we see them in Exodus, or more literally, right at the time of Joseph. In other words this wording makes it seem like Moses is the grandson of Levi.”
Thank you for your explanations for the Church everywhere.
My question today is why is the word Easter used in Acts 12:4 in the KJV? It is used for the Greek word Pascha (which is the paschal lamb) used in the password meal. I thought that Easter had its roots in paganism, so why would the KJ have used it?
Matthew 24 verses 44 onwards speaks of an unfaithful servant who is not watching for the return of his master. As a result he will be banished to a place where there is ‘weeping and gnashing of teeth’ amongst the hypocrites. What do you make of this in light of ‘once saved always saved?’