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I love God’s word and have several versions I read. (KJV, NASB & NIV). My son was recently saved and I gave him an NIV version. I grew up on the KJV & have memorized many passages from it. It is beautiful but sometimes a little difficult.

My pastor only condones KJV in our little church and states that he feels that the encroachment of the newer versions is just Satan’s way of causing more division among God’s people. And that the newer versions were taken from more recently discovered and less reliable Greek translations.

I respect his view but watch carefully for any gross distortions and so far feel comfortable enough with all the versions. Please help clarify this more for me … especially the Greek translations he has spoken about. Thank you so much for your ministry.

I have been helping to financially support several family members for the past few years with cash gifts towards their food, clothing, medicine, auto repairs, household goods, vacation money and other expenses. During this time I have not tithed my 10% but have made small donations when attending church. I have been considering my financial support to family members as my tithe, keeping in mind that instead of my tithe going to a church organization for their distribution, I am giving it directly to those in need. Is this Biblically correct or is this not considered proper tithing?

He has set his foundation on the holy mountain; the LORD loves the gates of Zion more than all the dwellings of Jacob. Glorious things are said of you, O city of God:  “I will record Rahab and Babylon among those who acknowledge me—Philistia too, and Tyre, along with Cush and will say,

A Bible Study by Jack Kelley

The Bible isn’t such a complex document that it requires years of formal education before you can begin to comprehend it. I’ve always believed the Bible was meant to be understood by any believer who can read and has a serious interest in knowing what it says.

If as Dan. 9:25 reveals that it would be 69 Weeks or 483 years until the Messiah would arrive, and as many suggest it was Palm Sunday (the Triumphal Entry), and if therefore the Messiah was then Crucified on Thursday or Friday, you decide, then how do you account for the miscellaneous additional 4-5 days beyond Palm Sunday? Are you suggesting that God ‘approximated’ the prophetic Crucifixion of His Only Begotten Son, Yeshua Jesus? And did the Temple system and the Mosaic Law come to an ‘official’ end at that point, even though the Temple stood thirty some odd years afterwards?