I was baptized when I was 23 years old in the 1st Baptist Church in Memphis, the Preacher took my wife and me in his office after the service and asked if we accepted Jesus as Lord and Savior and we said yes. He didn’t ask us to repent or ask for the forgiveness of our sins. I did not live my life for Jesus for a long time, but In the last few years I have turned all of my life over to Jesus completely and read the bible every day and pray every day almost all day. Do I need to be Baptized again? Everybody I have asked said no. What do you say?
I think we’ve all – at one time or another – been approached by a stranger asking for money because (supposedly) they’re in a desperate situation and need help. You give them some money but walk away wondering if you’ve just been conned. Don’t Christians have more to consider when confronted like this (i.e., what does God expect from me, the parable of the Good Samaritan, entertaining an angel unawares.) I don’t mind helping someone who truly needs help – if I can; I just don’t want to be an easy mark. How do you think a Christian should handle this type of situation?
From your study on the Sabbath, I now understand what “entering His rest” means. I understand that by accepting Jesus’ sacrifice on the cross, we have entered a life long “Sabbath rest” and do not need to worry about religious rites to earn or keep our salvation. That being said, Jesus made a comment that not one part of the law would disappear until everything is accomplished (Matthew 5:17-18). This is where my question lies. Does His comment regarding “everything is accomplished” remove the law for those under the new covenant? Was this meant just for the Jews? If Jesus says the law does not disappear, how does the Sabbath (and 10 commandments) requirement go away?
In Genesis 10 where the table of nations is recorded, we are told in verse 4 that Japheth’s descendants spread out into their territories by their clans within their nations, each with its own language. Also the same is said of Ham’s and Shem’s descendants in verses 20 and 31 respectively. How do we reconcile this with Genesis 11:1 which says, at one time all the people of the world spoke the same language and used the same words?
I have a question regarding the difference between the “regular gospel” that states that if you believe in your heart and confess with your mouth that Jesus is the Son of God, died for our sins and rose again, you will be saved, and something called “another gospel”. My brother who is of the Pentecostal persuasion, keeps talking to me of another gospel that is being taught by (a well known evangelist). I don’t have a clue as to what he is talking about. Please help me understand this.
The Bible states that on Judgment Day, everyone (those who’ve accepted Jesus as well as those who haven’t) will give an account for every thought, word, and deed either good, bad or indifferent. My question is: WHY? When I go before God to give my account, to what end does it serve? Even if He gives me total recall of everything, I know none of my answers are good enough to satisfy Him, and I know what a wretched mess I am. What’s the point?
In Matthew 15:26 and Mark 7:27 the Lord Jesus referred to Jews as “children” and to the Gentiles as “dogs”. In Romans 10:12, Galatians 3:28 and Colossians 3:11 I read “there is no difference?” What brought about the change?
What are your views on the theory that the mark on the forehead and in the hand might be the Muslim prayer bump and a sword. This coupled with the contention that 666 was a mistranslation of letters which very closely resemble “praise be to Allah” which appears on Muslims head/arm bands makes me wonder.
Re: Jews and Gentiles, I agree that the Lord’s comments in Matt. 15:26 were not meant to be demeaning to the Gentiles but His comments don’t sound like what the Holy Spirit inspired Paul to write about us. Something changed. What, when, and why was it?
Re: Mark 9:38-41. “Teacher,” said John, “we saw a man driving out demons in your name and we told him to stop, because he was not one of us.” “Do not stop him,” Jesus said. “No one who does a miracle in my name can in the next moment say anything bad about me, for whoever is not against us is for us. I tell you the truth, anyone who gives you a cup of water in my name because you belong to Christ will certainly not lose his reward.”
In this passage John appears concerned about some nonbelievers (“not one of us”) casting out demons in Jesus’ name, and tells them to stop. Jesus rebukes them for doing so, and goes on to imply some church recognition of these (apparent) nonbelievers (“for whoever is not against us is for us”). Is Jesus indicating there is a reward for nonbelievers friendly/helpful toward the Church and it’s members? Am I reading this correctly?