A question arose as we were studying Isaiah 37:36 which tells us the angel of the Lord went forth and smote 185,000 Assyrians. One of those in the class said that the Angel of the Lord refers to Jesus Christ. He further said that the appearances of the Angel of the Lord, in the Old Testament, refers to an appearance of God the Son, before the birth of Christ. Can you confirm this?

I would like to know something about the actual presence of the devil in heaven. Does this mean that his millions of “minions” are also there and for what purpose exactly would they be there? I suppose it cannot be in order to “tempt” the saints to sin, considering that there is no sin in heaven. Is it to accuse them day and night as he did for Job?? Whatever your thoughts on this, I am looking forward to know them and also the scriptures that support them.

Acts 3:21 says:

“…whom [speaking of Jesus] heaven must receive until the times of restoration of all things, which God spoke long ago by the mouth of his holy prophets.” (WEB)

I recently saw a website that says this verse means that the Church has to “restore all things” before Christ can return, so we need to get busy “restoring” things.

I have never in my life read this verse this way. I always assumed it meant that Christ will not return (at the Second Coming) until it’s time to “restore all things,” which I take to mean “until it’s time to establish the Millennial Kingdom following the Tribulation.” Can you elaborate a bit on the proper interpretation of this verse?

A few days back due to the problems in my life I said very bad things to God and Jesus. I feel sorry for what I said and I don’t want to go to hell. I am a born again Christian, I pray for others, tell them about Jesus, I help the poor, and I really have a tender heart in that I want everyone to get saved and be happy. But sometimes, due to the troubles I currently have, I get irritated when they don’t help me and shout at God. The last time it was just way too much. Can I still remain saved?

Please help me understand these verses in 1 John 5:16-17: If anyone sees his brother committing a sin not leading to death, he shall ask, and God will give him life–to those who commit sins that do not lead to death. There is sin that leads to death; I do not say that one should pray for that. All wrongdoing is sin, but there is sin that leads to death.

My thoughts on this are: the sin that leads to death is blaspheming the Holy Spirit which would imply the person committing this sin is not a believer in Christ as his Savior. So praying for him to have life is not an option. But, for any other sin we see a brother committing we can pray for God to give him life (salvation?) and He will?

I thank the Lord all the time for leading me to your website. The new Ask a Bible teacher section is great! I read them all.

I have a mental block, I guess, about the unjust steward in Luke 16, especially verses 8 & 9 (although I certainly prove the last part of verse 8). Most people that have just been ripped off are not going to commend anybody, especially the thief. And who is Jesus talking to in verse 9?

Another verse that I’ve gotten some rather strange answers on is Deuteronomy 32:8. What does that mean?

Thanks for your site & all your help!

Thank you, so much for your hard work in this website. It has truly strengthened my faith, and has been a constant source of Truth since I discovered it.

I am perplexed in talking to non-believing friends and associates. Tonight I had an encounter where the person asked me to prove the Bible’s authenticity, that it wasn’t corrupted over the years. I was wondering how to do this from a secular point of view, on the spot. I do have some quotes and phrases up my sleeves, but nothing seems to work on truly stubborn people. I even presented to them the possibilities of Jesus fulfilling all 300 prophecies, and that compared to secular history it has been more than accurate.

I am confused on what to say to a person that asks for real “proof” if there isn’t more than that. Am I just to forget about it? The way I am forbids even the thought of giving up on a person. Any advice whatsoever on this would be greatly appreciated, and may God continue to shower his gifts upon you!

What is the significance between Jesus feeding the 4000 in one case and the 5000 in another?

I have been listening to your Revelation mp3 studies every month. Not only are they very informative, but they leave me with a desire to learn more about the bible. I am trying to connect the dots on life after death from the beginning of time. You have made references to this on numerous articles and tracks, but I feel like I am missing something. This is what I understand …

Death Before the Cross

Everyone went to the “Abode of the Dead.” If you died with faith of a coming redeemer, you went on the side called Paradise, a joyful place. On the other side was what we refer to as hell, a terrible place of torment.

Death After the Cross

Jesus gathered all people in Paradise and brought them to heaven – (Is this correct or do they stay here until the final judgment after the Millennium? Is the final judgment for everyone or just unbelievers?)

When we die now we bypass Paradise and go directly to heaven – Is there any waiting period to get to heaven? Or, is it “poof” you are there like everyone says? If there is a waiting period, are we waiting for the rapture so everyone can go to heaven at the same time?

The Dead During End Times

I am really confused about our placement during end times. Taking your stance that the rapture is first, do we stay in heaven while Jesus comes down to earth for his second coming? Or, do we shadow Him? At what point do we enter the giant low orbit satellite called the New Jerusalem with Jesus? (I am assuming that we don’t go directly there after death). At what point does God the father enter Jehovah Shammah, the Holy City on Earth?

Is there any record of what happens to the unsaved at the end of the Millennium? Since the beginning of time, all dead unbelievers have gone to the torment side of the Abode of the Dead. Do they return after their final judgment? Is there an initial judgment? Or, do unbelievers just enter the Abode of the Dead waiting for their final judgment.

Thanks so much for your insight.

Thank you so much for your service to the Lord by having this website. So many questions are answered with solid sound doctrine. This is something we sheep need so desperately today.

My question concerns the 7 Letters written to the 7 Churches. Some say that the Lord is addressing true believers and some say that he was addressing all those who profess faith in Him. Some were/are truly saved and some were/are not.

I was raised Roman Catholic. When I was 16 I rejected Christianity because it seemed to me that Jesus was always sending me to hell for something that I did or did not do. At 21, for the very first time I heard the true Gospel of Grace, the Gospel of our Salvation. I accepted Jesus as my personal Savior and was baptized to that testimony.

As I began to read the 7 letters to 7 Churches, I recognized the Roman Catholic Church in Churches 3 and 4, Pergamos and Thyatira. Especially Thyatira. In the Letters, as I understood it, Christ was speaking to all those who say they know Him. The over comers did and those who didn’t overcome didn’t. I was an over comer, coming out of a background of Roman Catholicism (Thyatira). I had found the truth and believed. Sardis which represents the Reformation period, has a name that they live but they are dead. Why were/are they really dead?

I see this as being those from the Reformed and Covenant Churches that claim the name of Christ, but teach that you can lose salvation. If you can lose it, then your salvation was never really based on Christ alone, no matter how much you claim His name and say that you know Him.

My question is this, are the Letters written to the 7 Churches written to all believers, or to all who claim His name, some saved (the over comers), but some that are not saved, being professors only (not overcoming)?