How do Christians not live in the world? What does not living in the world mean exactly?

In today’s world and in my opinion, it seems as though the word disciple is being flaunted as a bait word to attract a lot of fish. And yet my conclusion of what I see is that a lot of churches consider going to church, taking discipleship classes, maybe doing some community service, etc. as a way to become a disciple. It’s almost like to become a disciple, it’s okay to have your cake and eat it too. It’s like they’re all saying, Luke 14:33 doesn’t really mean what it says.

“So therefore, any one of you who does not renounce all that he has cannot be my disciple.”

Is this to be taken literally or spiritually? For many years now I’ve long desired (spiritually) to be a “true disciple” but don’t consider myself one because I have not denounced all that I have (physically). And I get so frustrated when I hear Pastors, in particular, saying that “we will make disciples out of you” and yet, the church goes on as it always has. Please help as my prayer is to be able to really share the real Truth in this matter with others.

Thank you for your wonderful ministry! I have always been confused by the Beatitude which states, “Blessed are the poor in spirit for theirs is the kingdom of heaven”. What exactly does “poor in spirit” mean? I have been told it stands for the righteous, but I would like your clarifying interpretation.

What do I say to a believer who doesn’t believe that God speaks to men today?

Can you please elaborate the terminology of the Father, Son relationship as indicated in Hebrews 1 verse 5. “You are my son; today I have become your Father.” As I understand it the Trinity always existed.

Last Sunday at my church, our pastor talked about the refiners fire’s process and he said that God wants us to suffer so he can cleanse us. He used 1 Peter 1:6-7 to support his position. Is this true?

The Bible refers to Jesus as the Son of God and the Son of Man. Would you tell me why both terms are used, and is there a reason one term is used in a particular verse instead of the other?

I read in Matthew 24:36 that not even the son knows the day that he will return. Only god the father knows. If Jesus is God how can this be? Also when Jesus went off to pray who was he praying to if he is God?

A friend of mine wants to know ‘why can’t a prophecy today be considered scripture, if it is all inspired by the Holy Spirit?’

I was watching a fairly well known Bible teacher on television and at one point he said, ” Why do you think the Lord condoned slavery?” His answer was that the slaves who had benevolent masters were actually much better off then if they had been on their own as they were illiterate. I can only assume he was referring to slaves of the South before the Civil War, who were often grossly mistreated. I was totally stunned to hear a Christian say such a thing much less a teacher of God’s Word! I would very much like to know what your opinion is about this.