Re: the 7 years leading up to the 2nd Coming. There evidently is not peace on the earth before the 70th week starts or there wouldn’t be a need for a 7 year peace treaty with Israel. Then, when Revelation 6 starts there is turmoil with the four horsemen. Granted, it gets much worse in the second half but it does not sound to me like there is peace before or during the 70th week. My question is how does the below verse fit when there isn’t peace occurring in the world? In I Thess. 5:3 “When they say peace and safety then sudden destruction comes upon them and they shall not escape.” Do you think there must be a there a short bit of time with a reprieve of peace between the signing of the treaty and the 1st horseman coming on the world scene?
What will become of the non-believers who have not come to faith prior to the Second Coming, yet have managed to survive through the Tribulation era while refusing to take the mark? Will these individuals also take part in the repopulating of the planet during the Millennial Era along with the Tribulation Saints, or will they suffer the same fate as those who willingly took the mark, and are part of the antichrist system?
I have listened to your teaching on the battle of Ezekiel 38 and the timing of the rapture. I am confused as how this is related to Romans 11:25, (For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.) Does this mean that when the “last” Gentile person is saved that the battle begins and the church is raptured, or are these events unrelated?
I know that there is a judgment seat of Christ and a Great White Throne Judgment in the Bible. Years ago I recall my Grandfather talking about a Bema Seat Judgment, but I can find nothing in my King James Version about it. He spoke of its meaning as the same as the Judgment Seat of Christ. Do you know anything about this?
Re: 1 John 3:6-10. The Bible speaks clearly here that if a person continues to sin after having obviously made a genuine profession of faith and demonstrated it for years and who is deeply spiritual, that he is lost. How can that be since the person’s prior walk demonstrated very clearly that he was saved. In fact in spite of sexual immorality the person continues to preach the clear gospel. But since he keeps on sinning this passage says he has never known Christ and the man is positive that he has known him.
Is the Body of Christ the same as the Bride of Christ? It seems in Philippians 3:10-11 that Paul makes a distinction between the two words for “resurrection” found in both verse 10 and 11. Could there be a “taking out of” that first resurrection of the Body to create the Bride? Another thought: when God created a bride for Adam, He took her “out of” his body.
I appreciate your answer for the person asking what it means to wait on the Lord. In your answer you said, ” I believe it means that after praying for direction, we are to wait patiently for the Lord to provide it.” If so, then how does James 2:17 apply, ” In the same way, faith by itself, if it is not accompanied by action, is dead?” To me, waiting means just that, you wait. You don’t step forward in any direction. So, if we pray in faith and then accompany that pray by action, where does the waiting fit in?
Re: Who Should We Pray To? You responded with “We can pray in the Spirit and in His power”. Please explain “pray in the Spirit”. My local church preaches that this is tongues but reading the verses they use in context doesn’t make sense. When I throw out those verses used out of context I am left with Ephesians 6:18 and Jude 20. Both mention “praying in the spirit” but do not instruct on what it is. I do not understand how they can build a doctrine on this when there is so little instruction. Surely if tongues is important as it is preached the Holy Spirit would have put instruction on it in the word. I can hardly turn a page without being told how to walk in love, live by faith but not much on “praying in the spirit” Am I missing something here?
I know that if Jewish Leadership would have accepted Jesus death/resurrection for their sins when He came the first time, the church would not have been born. The remaining 7 years would have begun following the resurrection of Jesus. My question is, would the temple still have been torn down or would the antichrist have just stood in Herod’s temple?
A friend recommended your website and I’m really glad they did. I was impressed with what I’ve read so far. I wanted to get your opinion on something I’ve come to understand in the last few years. I’ve believed in the Rapture for some time now, but always had the feeling that I would not be Raptured, even though I’m a believer. I did not know what to make of this but some time after that I read Romans 9, especially focusing on verses 23-31, and came to the conclusion that I would be part of the remnant. What have you come to understand about the remnant through your reading and study of Scripture?