Since God is more interested in motives than our works, how do we know our motives are correct? I have a little “something” I do & try to make sure the recipient doesn’t know who I am. I include a verse so God receives the glory, and hesitate to share so I don’t appear to “blow my own horn”. However I actually REALLY enjoy doing this. I find it very fulfilling. How do I know when/if I’ve stepped over the line & am just doing it for my own satisfaction?

I am curious about differences between the KJV and the NIV bibles when Jesus talks about murder and being angry at your brother. In Matthew 5:21-22 Jesus tells the people,

You have heard that it was said to the people long ago, “do not murder, and anyone who murders will be subject to judgment. But I tell you that anyone who is angry with his brother will be subject to judgment.”

I understand that Jesus is trying to convey that being angry is just as wrong and just as much a sin as if you actually killed the person. But in the KJV verse 22 says “But I say to you that whoever is angry with his brother without a cause …”

Why does it say without a cause and why was this omitted from the NIV and ASV. I know that the KJV is one of the oldest versions and therefore is one of the closest to the correct translation along with the ASV. Does that mean that as long as you have a just cause such as finding out your spouse cheated on you…then you are allowed to be angry and not be considered sinning? And if not then what is the meaning behind it in the KJV? Thanks for you time and God bless.

I sometimes meet people who seem to have truly evil hearts and minds. I’ve pondered whether they have a soul, or if their soul is black. It’s very difficult to understand what their soul must be like because of their behavior and thinking. Do some people not have souls? Or are their souls and hearts so thoroughly corrupted that they feel black?

If a believer marries again after a divorce, is that person living in a perpetual state of sin?

In Matthew 12: 30-32 Jesus is talking to the Jews, explaining a sin that cannot be forgiven. I understand all sins were forgiven at the cross, but in verse 32b he mentions “the age to come”. I assume that age to be the Kingdom Age as being the next age to come for the Jews. Am I correct in this thinking? And if so what does this mean for the Jews?

After a lot of searching, we found a small country church that we thought would accept us. I was even voted in as a deacon after we’d been there for several years. But gradually, I started to suspect I was being shut out from the workings of church business, and I began wondering why I was ever asked to be a deacon in the first place. Since we live outside the community, I’m puzzled why we still bother to attend, but I was told if we leave we would be forsaking the assembly, using Hebrews 10:25 as the authority. I’m at a loss. Would we be guilty of violating Hebrews 10:25 by leaving?

“The mountains and the hills shall break forth before you into singing, and all the trees of the field shall clap their hands.” (Isaiah 55:12)

Is this the new Jerusalem? When we are completely free from sin, and put on Christ completely and be like Him as He is, will we have power and closeness to the creation where we hear mountains/hills sing and trees clap their hands? To think all material things that bring joy but not everlasting is to be replaced with creation makes my heart leap. Surely to hear a mountain speak must be simply divine.

Rev. 15 mentions a temple in heaven, and I am not clear on this. It is my understanding that it is there that God resides on his throne. Is there an actual temple or is heaven a template of a temple? Also, I understand that the temple contains an Ark of the Covenant. I look forward to your comments on this chapter.

Why is the tribe of Dan is not mentioned in Revelation chapter 7? What happened?

I was looking on the web for the beatitudes when I stumbled upon them in the Catholic Encyclopedia. I was shocked when I read there that they have substituted the word “righteousness” with “justice.” To me these are very different things. When we speak of justice we usually mean redress in a legal sense. If you commit a crime against me I desire justice, for example. But when I think of righteousness I think of a divine attribute that can only be gained via relationship and bestowal from God through Christ. (Rom 3:10 & 2 Cor 5:21.) So it seems to me that the Catholic Encyclopedia is substituting a man-to-man relationship for a man-to-God necessity. What are your thoughts on this?