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I recently heard a well known evangelist comment that Isaiah 66:22-24 was evidence believers in heaven would take an “annual tour” to observe unbelievers in hell. When asked “for what purpose” he explained (paraphrased) so that we might appreciate how blessed we are to enjoy God’s favor in heaven. Since we are told there would be no more tears or sadness in heaven this explanation does not seem reasonable. I certainly would not be happy or consoled to see those suffering in hell especially if some of those suffering were known to me – and as an “annual event”?. What is your take on this scripture?

Would you please comment on LK 21:23/MT 24:19? It is a common belief that children under the age of accountability will be raptured. The same for the pre-born. Are the children and pre-born referred to in these passages conceived after the rapture? Or is this something specific concerning the nation Israel?

In Rev Chapter 7 verse it talks of the “great multitude that can’t be numbered. Earlier in the book it mentions the angels, beasts and elders who numbered 10,000 times 10,000 and thousands and thousands. This comes out to be more than 1000,000,000, and they are numbered so this “great multitude” must far exceed that number. Also the martyrs are already mentioned in the 5th seal. So who are these great multitudes?

Since they all show up here at this point in time they can’t all be the tribulation saints, or can they? It seems to me that the tribulation saints will come in throughout the tribulation period. They can’t be the martyrs they have already been spoken of. So who are these?

Recently I heard a sermon on “wiping away our tears”. It was stated that Rev. 21:4 was in reference to the Great White Throne judgment. We will witness this judgment and will be sorrowful for who we see condemned to Hell. God will have to wipe away our tears. What are your thoughts?

Do you think the restoration as mentioned in Joel 2:25 is for the current church or is this prophecy solely for the Jewish nation and when will it happen? Also when do you think verses 28 and 29 are going to be fulfilled? Thanks so much for you website it is a blessing of truth.

When the Lord states that “no man knows the day or hour”, could this possibly be a reference to the Feast of Trumpets/ Rosh Hashanah? This day, from my limited understanding, was celebrated by the first full moon which no one knew exactly when that would be. Men would literally be on “look-out” for the full moon. Depending upon what they saw, determined when the Feast was celebrated. Am I reading too much into this, or is it possibly a hint of when the rapture could occur?

I was wondering if you could answer a question for me, please? Are there any Bible passages that teach us about exactly who can interpret the Bible? Or if the Bible in any way authorizes interpretation?

I was reading your web site with regards to healing and I have a question. I read where someone asked if God would heal a person if that person was sick due to their own sin. But the question concerned a person who did too much exercise. The question I have is will God heal us if we are sick due to sexual sins? And will he heal us of the consequences of those sins that are in our bodies and have NO medical cure?

How is it possible for any Jew to believe that the anti-Christ is the Messiah? The prophecies for the Messiah in the OT are completely different from the prophecies about the anti-Christ in the OT. If the anti-Christ is from the same people who brought down Jerusalem in the Daniel prophecies, a revived Roman Empire, why would a Jew believe that same person is the Messiah, who must be a Jew from the tribe of Judah, etc.?

How does the Bible explain the evolution of man that is Darwin inspired. Specifically, if God created Adam/Eve at a certain time frame which has been noted as only a few thousand years, how does the Bible explain the fact that archaeologists have uncovered human skulls that are millions of years old? This confuses me. I am at a lost to explain this to anyone who would ask me about it.