Thank you for addressing difficult problems concerning Bible prophecy. In Ezekiel 39:6 God says He will send fire on Magog and those that dwell safely in the coast lands. I tried to look up coast lands to see what it meant in the original text. It seemed to refer to people that lived across the ocean from Israel and were unknown to them at the time of the writing. Some have decided this is Europe. Is it possible this prophecy refers to the US as well?
I have been doing a study in the Gospel of John and when I came across John 11:21-26 my curiosity was piqued. Are Jesus’ words to Martha in verses 25-26 hinting at the Rapture?
“Jesus said unto her, I am the resurrection, and the life: he that believeth in me, though he were dead, yet shall he live: And whosoever liveth and believeth in me shall never die.”
Thank you for all you do to help us understand scripture more fully. I have a question about Judas. Is there any correlation between the scapegoat in the Old testament and Judas in the NT? Of course, Judas was not innocent like the scapegoat, but the way in which Judas died (Acts 1:18) is so similar in manner to the scapegoat’s death from being pushed off a cliff that it made me ask. Many Christians blame Judas for Jesus death, and although his actions played a part in the final outcome, it was Jesus himself who laid down his life for us. Each of us is responsible for the death of Jesus because of our sin, but human nature just naturally seeks out someone else to blame. Is there any significance in the similarities?
The Bible makes it very clear that sin is an abnormal state brought into this world because of a choice made by Adam and Eve. I’ve been trying to picture what my life would look like if there was no sin in this world. My question is this. Does the Bible paint us a picture of what life for a human would be without sin in this world?
Genesis 6:2 says “The sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.” This may not be answerable but I would be interested in your thoughts on the following questions. I believe it’s rightly taught that these “sons of God” are angels. Their union with the daughters of men produced the Nephilim or giant offspring. It appears that God created only male angels as there are no indications of any female angels identified in scripture. What would be the logic of creating males and no females for one thing. and why would these angels even have the ability to produce sperm. I know God does nothing without a very good reason.
I was saved in a church that taught the doctrine of Eternal Security. After a few years I moved to another city where I attended a church that seemed to be gospel centered but I discovered they are part of a denomination that believes we can lose our salvation. When I questioned this belief I was told that verses like John 3: 16, Ephesians 2:8-9, Romans 8:38-39 and others don’t mean our salvation is guaranteed. During the conversation the pastor also told me he was taught not to accept the prophecies of Revelation because they are only allegorical. When I asked about Daniel, Isaiah, and other prophesies concerning rapture, tribulation, and the millennium, he said these were also considered to be allegorical since they are to come in the future.
I stopped going there, but later I wondered if the saved people there are secure because they’re constantly being told they’re not. I also wondered how the pastors of that denomination can have a true relationship with Jesus Christ when they don’t accept Him and His Word totally as written?
In Matt. 1:1-17 what is the significance of 3 periods of 14 generations? How many total years is this and then what is that number divided by 42 (14×3)? Would this tell us how long a generation is? Can we determine how many generations from Adam? Can we determine an approximate number of generations from Jesus Christ’s first coming until His second coming?
I was reading Colossians 3:5-10 and I came across verse 6 where Paul seems to suggest that doing the things mentioned in verse 5 will bring the wrath of God upon that person. I suppose Paul was writing to believers here, with that in mind and understanding that when you are a believer you are sealed with the Holy Spirit and you will be redeemed from the coming wrath. I then want to know which wrath is Paul referring to here in Col.3, and which people (believers or none believers) is he addressing?
There has long been the assertion that the church is the Bride. Could you please send me the specific bible reference? I have never been able to find this reference. The Church has a masculine gender and the Lamb’s wife is the New Jerusalem. How can ones own body be his bride, especially if the Church is masculine?