At Pentecost when the Holy Spirit came upon the Apostles they spoke in Tongues and everyone understood them in their own language. It seems later the gift of Tongues changed to something secret and required an interpreter. What happened?

Since I started tithing I can no longer help my family who are in a desperate situation. My mother is completely stressed out and in debt and can quite literally barely put food on the table. Though I know it’s right to tithe, it breaks my heart to see them go without. They relied heavily on me and now I feel terrible I can’t do both, I can’t tithe and help them. How can I be obedient to God and see my family suffer. What should I do?

In this economy any job is a good job, right? I worked for 8 years at a job where I prayed every day for God to get me out of there. Finally I gave up my job and was replaced. But did I really give up my job? I have been in and out of that job countless times over the last year and helped out the replacement many times for free. Now my old employer would like to hire me back as my replacement quit. Should I go back to this job? We have now moved and the drive would be longer. The stress and daily deadlines were enormous to the point it caused health issues. My husband does not want me to go back.

My wife and I have been seriously considering a move away from United States. We feel for some reason that this is what God is calling us to do although we do not know yet where he will be sending us. Is there anything in the Bible that would lead us to better understand this direction we feel from God?

According to Matthew 13:41 as I understand it Jesus says he will send his Angels, and they shall gather out of “His” Kingdom all things that offend, and them that do iniquity, and shall cast them into a furnace of fire: there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth. First of all Jesus mentions “things”,then he mentions “them”which I believe refers to “humans”, which do iniquity. What I don’t understand is what type of people is he referring to, and are they Christians? Don’t you have to be a true Christian to be in “His Kingdom”? Can you please explain this?

As I read the passages in 1 Thessalonians 5:1-6, it sounds like the second coming, and that the church will be here watching. Verses 9-10 sound like passages about salvation only, not necessarily about the wrath of the tribulation. Please help me understand these passages. Do they speak of the rapture?

I have always been taught that any time the Angel of the Lord showed up in the Old Testament it was pre-incarnate Jesus. But there’s another Angel of the Lord showing up to Joseph while Mary is pregnant with Jesus–who is this one?

My question regards being filled with The Holy Spirit. I do not speak in tongues nor do I have a prayer language, although I have prayed and prayed to receive such. However, I feel God with me all the time. He answers my prayers ALL THE TIME. I know without a doubt that I am HIS and He is my Lord, King and Savior (and that should be enough right?) But is there anything in scriptures (other than the gift of tongues) that is evidence that The Holy Spirit is residing in a person? I would like to reference a scripture when talking to my daughters about this.

I recently found your article entitled “solving the three day, three night mystery” in which you provide evidence for a Thursday crucifixion and a Sunday resurrection. It was very helpful and I want to thank you for your efforts. In it you state “…at sunrise it was Friday day, day two” This leads me to ask what is meant in Luke 24:21 when Jesus met with the men on the road to Emmaus and they told him that it was the “third day since all this took place.

The road to Emmaus event took place on Sunday day (day three according to them) which would make Saturday day 2 and Friday day 1 since Christ was crucified. I just wonder how you make the 3 days 3 nights of Matthew 12:40, plus the Thursday crucifixion theory fit with Luke 24:21?

Comparing the references to water in John 3:5 and 1 John 5:6: The John 3:5 reference is considered by many (and I agree) to mean physical birth, yet the 1 John 5:6 reference is considered by some to mean baptism. I believe that 1 John was written, in part, to refute false teaching and to stress that Jesus did come in the flesh. Because of that, it seems that there would be consistency in the usage of the word ‘water’ between the two passages with each one referring to physical birth. Can you point out what I’m missing?