If I’m not wrong there is no evidence in the gospels of Jesus mentioning about the rapture. Since this is an important subject why hasn’t Jesus spoken a single word about it? I tried to figure out an answer by myself: maybe because the people He was addressing to would not be involved with the rapture. But, even so, He spoke a lot about the wedding of the Lamb and the bride, the wedding banquet, and they were not involved in these topics as well. Could you please give me some light on that?

How do you think (or describe) Jesus actually “Sprinkled His Blood” on the altar in Heaven? This question comes to my simple mind every time I see the act mentioned and your explanation would be greatly appreciated. If you have explained this in another article would you direct me towards it.

I have a question about Luke 23:39-43, and the arguments I have read about the comma placement, which changes the whole time element about when the thief actually went to Paradise. With the comma placement as it appears in Scripture, the thief went to Paradise that very day. Moving the comma over to follow the word today, the thief’s arrival was an eventuality, but not necessarily that day. I know that punctuation and verse and chapter assignments were not made until the Bible was actually put together by men, so how do we know for certain that what we see today is accurate?

There are lots of people who are using software to come up with ‘codes’ in Hebrew that are supposed to tell the future. Some are Jewish Rabbis using the Old Testament only and some are others who use the entire Bible for codes. Do you have any opinion on these codes and if they have any validity for the Christian?

I’ve been looking for someone I felt to be a good source to answer these questions. I’m not sure if these are scripture but if so, I’d like to know how they apply to a believer today. 1) looking into a glass dimly lit, and 2) calling things that are not as though they were. Can you help?

I’ve read and heard many times… “I am the same yesterday, today and tomorrow.” Recently though I’ve been digging into Old Testament and came across Nahum and then Habakkuk. It’s hard to understand the quote noted above about “I am the same…” and apply that to some of the Old Testament books as they speak of a God who is unforgiving and full of wrath. Can you please shed some light there for me? For a younger Christian, it appears we read about 2 completely different versions of God from the Old to the New Testaments. I realize that’s not the case as God doesn’t contradict Himself so I’m just working to understand.

I had a conversation with a member of a group that claims that Jesus was a sinner like anybody before he was baptized by John the Baptist. His claim is that if Jesus was not a sinner then why was he baptized for repentance by John the Baptist? I tried to explain that the Lord was being baptized ONLY for the fulfillment of the scriptures not necessary for repentance. Is there perhaps any other valid reason why The Lord was baptized by John the Baptist other than the one I mentioned? Can you also comment on the notion that Jesus was a sinner like any other person before John’s baptism?

How does a Pastor retire from the service of God? I can find no scripture to support this action. And from what I do see, It looks like all leaders of the old and new testament died in service to God. Even Paul was sick and God used him in his sickness. I just don’t get it. My Pastor was an anointed teacher of God and he stepped down this way. And I guess it still bothers me.

One of the titles God uses for Himself is I Am. I was just wondering what it means literally speaking?

In Romans 12:3, it speaks of “the measure of Faith” God has given us. My question is: do we all get the same “measure” of Faith, or are some of us given a bigger or smaller measure? Some of us are called to serve in areas where I would think they would need a very large measure of Faith.