I recently read a book that said the 2015 Feast of Trumpets might be the first day of the 7000th year which arguably is the time for the Millennium, but if that were true then should not the rapture have taken place 7 years ago first? Or can it be possible that the rapture could still be considered the beginning of the Millennium?

What is the right thing to do when someone who is a mature Christian who has been walking with the Lord for many years and has a good understanding of the Bible has now decided it is unbiblical to eat pork. This person is not Jewish. My understanding of Romans 14 is that all food has been declared clean and that it was the new or immature believers that had difficulty grasping this. The Bible also says that if someone regards a food as unclean then he shouldn’t eat it and it would be wrong for us to tell them otherwise. Yet should something be said to a mature Christian who has full understanding of salvation through grace in Christ who seems to be going backwards into legalism.

If the Bible already contains prophecy, and if everything it says will come to pass, then what good will it do us to pray for the peace of Jerusalem? Shouldn’t we just be praying for Gods will to be done? Everything the Bible says is supposed to happen seems to be happening now, so how can our prayers do anything?

How can you advocate a position that does away with God’s complete sovereignty over where man spends his eternity? What do you do with the plain language of predestination in the Bible? “For whom he foreknew, he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son…” (Romans 8:29-30).

My sunday school teacher is a very high degree Mason. This man knows scripture, recognizes Christ as his personal savior, participates in serving communion, does immense work for the church. I have learned so much in his class, but it bothers me very much that he is a mason. Can you be a mason and a follower of Christ at the same time?

My question is regarding John 9:1-3, where the disciples ask Jesus whose sin caused the man to be blind, and Jesus answers that it was neither the man nor his parents. It’s the next part I’m asking about, where it says he was born blind so that the works of God could be displayed in him. What do you say? Surely God did not make the man blind, only to have Jesus come along and heal him, did He?

Is a Gentile still a Gentile after they have been, as a wild olive branch, grafted into a cultivated olive tree? And is a Jew who has accepted Jesus, calling himself a Messianic Jew, is not actually a Jew or Israelite anymore?

I have always understood from Romans 11: 25-26, that all Jews will be saved as they have been hardened by God so that the full numbers of Gentiles can come in? Please help to further enlighten.

My question is about people in hell. How can unbelievers be in torment if they are not in human fleshly bodies? Wasn’t the Rich Man in agony in the flames? How could a spirit be in agony from flames? And in the Lake of Fire, human fleshly bodies would be immediately destroyed in flames once and for ever. So do unbelievers in the Lake of Fire have resurrected bodies too?

I do not believe God considers all sin to be the same. I base this on the words of Jesus. He was responding to Pilate who had said, “Don’t you realize I have power either to free you or to crucify you?” In John 19:11, “Jesus answered, “You would have no power over me if it were not given to you from above. Therefore the one who handed me over to you is guilty of a greater sin.” I realize that any sin, no matter the magnitude by our earthly standards, separates us from God. We all need salvation through Jesus. Even so, don’t you think that Jesus’ words in John 19:11 means that God does in fact see sin in degrees?