Re: Romans 5:15. It says that the Grace of Jesus Christ has abounded to many. I’m given to understand that people of the Calvinist view point to this verse to support their contention that God doesn’t extend His offer of Grace to everyone, only to the ones He has predestined to be saved…the “many”. There are lots of verses that say this is error, not the least of which is John 3:16. Please help me understand what Rom 5:15 is actually saying.

I was in a discussion with some people who think it is still in practice to anoint a person who is sick and maybe he will be healed. What do you say about the oil in James 5:14? I believe this is confusing to many today.

I’ve done some research/reading about Jewish baptism with interest. Especially the concept of “living water” used for a proper baptism. However, where in the OT is that practice instituted by God?

I’ve been reading and thinking a lot about the concept of inerrancy in the Bible and what the fallout from either conclusion could potentially mean. i.e. “if there’s one error there might as well be 1,000” or “if its truly inspired by a God who cannot tell a lie then it must be 100% true”

I’m just wondering about what to make of certain things like Ahaziah’s age when he began to rule (22 according to 2 Kings 8:26 and 42 according to 2 Chronicles 22:2) Also the mention in my Bible’s commentary about the populations given in the book of Numbers were likely wrong given the populations of the world at that time. I believe the Word of God to be truth, but I know people who don’t and I would like to be able to point out where their mistake is. Can you help?

Every morning when I read my daily Scriptures … I always read Ephesians 6:10-20 to put on the armor of God before I start my day. I think it is a great reading for all to read to protect themselves with before starting the day.

My question is regarding Ephesians 6:12 where it says ” … against spiritual wickedness in high places.” I also have read versions where it states “heavenly places”.

The question is where is “spiritual wickedness” in “high” or “heavenly” places? May God forgive me but where would evil lurk in “high” or “heavenly places”?

Peace and grace to you in our Lord Jesus Christ. I have a question concerning witnessing to pagan followers. I have been talking with a few that point out that all religions, including Christianity, are actually a derivative of some former pagan belief. They point out that paganism has been around much longer then Christianity or Judaism for that matter. So, in their mind, it seems logical that when they hear a story or teaching in Christianity that is like one of their own from paganism, that it must have come from paganism.

What helps can I find that will give me a sufficient answer for why it appears that Christians borrow it’s teachings from pagan myths? I understand that Nimrod and the city of Babel is the birthplace of all paganism, but what can I show my pagan friends as evidence that this is true?

I love the vivid word picture describing Elijah, the fiery chariots, and charioteers. And I believe he will return, stand, preach, be killed and resurrected in the streets of Jerusalem during the Great Tribulation period. And I also know bodies will rise from the grave to meet Jesus in the Rapture.

But in the mean time, where is Elijah’s earthly body? I wonder if the fire consumed his body for this time until he inhabits it again during the Tribulation? Or is the body he’ll inhabit in Jerusalem already glorified?

A pastor I heard recently preached that after the rapture, those who had been given an opportunity to accept Jesus and had rejected Him and were thus left behind would not have an opportunity to accept Jesus post-rapture. He cited a verse in II Thes. where it talks of a great delusion being sent and the people believing a lie.

It would appear from The Revelation that those killed in the great tribulation come from every nation, tribe and tongue are before the throne (saints) and there are 144,000 Jews who are sealed with God’s seal, all of whom had to have accepted Jesus as Savior after the rapture. Therefore I question the accuracy of his belief. Can you shed any light?

I have heard and read many times that God gave Adam the earth on a ‘lease’ for only 7,000 years. For this reason, when Adam fell and forfeited the earth to Satan, Satan only has 7,000 years to have dominion on this earth. After that Jesus Christ arrives in His Second Advent to reclaim the earth, etc. Where is the express scripture that says that the earth is on a ‘lease’ of 7,000 years. If there is no express scripture, how can this be inferred?

I have a friend who used to have the same beliefs as I, but within the past few years has ended up being what he calls a Historical Realist, but to me he seems to be more of a Preterist. He believes ALL prophecies were fulfilled in 70AD.

I have been doing a lot of research to disprove his reasoning, but I want to make sure I have a strong impact. He believes Revelation was written before 70AD cause the temple was mentioned. I know it’s a temple of the future, not of the one of Biblical times. And Nero does have anti-Christ characteristics, but I don’t see where he fit full prophecy of the Antichrist & beast.

Do you have any strong scripture references to support against Jesus’ teaching at the Mt of Olives was not referring to 70AD? Also do you know where I can find solid proof Revelation was written in the mid 90s AD?

Thank you, your site is a blessing.