Why would God destroy all the nations to where he sent the Jews? It is not the nations fault that the Jews were scattered because they disobeyed God. Why will God destroy those nations?

Re: Zombies In The Bible I have a little different take on the subject. The person who asked the question about zombies in the Bible could have been directed to Revelation 9:6 where it clearly states ‘in those days people will seek death, but will not be able to find it; they will long to die, but death will flee from them’. Taken literally, and I see no reason not to, people in total fear and desperation trying to take their own lives will continue walking around with ghastly looking wounds that at any other time in history would have certainly been terminal. Though they will continue in their ability to reason and perhaps function as before they would most assuredly resemble the ‘walking dead’ in all other aspects.

In Matt. 24:15-16 the Lord warned all who are in Judea to flee to the mountains immediately upon hearing of the Abomination. Yet, did I understand you to imply that only the 144,000 who are sealed will do so? Would you please clarify this matter? What about other post-Rapture Messianic Jews and believing Gentiles who live in Judea when the Abomination happens? Surely many/most of them will also heed the warning. Will they be safeguarded as well? Also, did I read somewhere that those to be protected will be flown to Petra on eagles wings, or some such?

A young man I sometimes see at work asked me “Is it true there are zombies in the Bible”? He was referring to Matthew 27:51-53. I read it to him and did my best to explain. How would you have done it?

I recently read an article that stated that the rapture of “we who are alive and remain” would not occur immediately after the dead in Christ are resurrected, but instead we would be raptured 40 days after the dead in Christ come out of their graves. The article stated that the example for this is from Christ’s resurrection at the same time that believers came out of the tombs. He ascended and took them with him 40 days later and that is the model for the rapture of the church. What is your opinion? Is it possible we will be on earth for 40 days after the dead in Christ are resurrected?

I can’t seem to find an answer to this question. In 1 Thessalonians 4:16 and 1 Corinthians 15:52, the verses reference the dead rising first during the rapture. I don’t believe in soul-sleep, so I am confused by the word “dead.” I try to make sense of it by thinking those verses refer to the dead, but saved in Christ, rising first and the church being caught up second. But I’m confused as to why God would want to raise up dead bodies. Do you know what I mean? Most of those bodies have long ago rotted away and turned to dust, so what is going to be raised up if their spirits are already in Heaven? Thanks so much for your help!

Orthodox Jews claim that Matthew 1:23 misquoted Isiah 7:14. They say that word “Alma” means young woman and not a virgin. And the word for virgin is “Bethulah”. Is that true?

Recently I’ve heard of books by a well known author who says the Bible makes no distinction between Israel and the Church, so when Revelation talks of Israel it really means the Church. Also, he holds that Revelation was written before 70

I am currently reading your article “The 144,000 of Rev 7 and 14” and this question comes to mind. Does Israel have any idea of just how many of their people come from which tribe? I am sure The Lord does and He will use that knowledge in selecting the 144,000 Jewish men for teaching in the Tribulation. That would be an interesting thing to know, I think.

Because there are 3 major views of when the Church will be raptured and very knowledgeable scholars on all sides ( pre, mid, and post tribulation) and because Jesus alludes to all three (Church of Philadelphia pre, Church of Thyatira mid, Laodicea post) is it feasible that all three are correct?