I so love your website. The insight you provide is amazing. My question for you is based on another question you answered recently. You said “The seal of God is the same one mentioned in Rev. 7:3 that will protect the 144,000. There’s no indication as to who else might receive the seal, but my guess is that all believers will have it. The Mark of the Beast does not come along until Rev. 13:16-17.”
My understanding is that believers in OT times did not have the Holy Spirit sealed in them and they could therefore lose their salvation. So too is my understanding that tribulation believers will not be sealed either. In other words both groups could/can lose their salvation.
So my question is do you really think that all believers will be sealed or just the 144,000 that God said He would seal? And if you do believe all believers get sealed at that point, wouldn’t it stand to reason that as new believers converted would they be sealed too as God is not a respecter of persons? (in that what He does for one, He does for all?)
It is just my opinion but I don’t think very many believers are going to make it through the tribulation and those that do make it will be jews that are supernaturally saved. I believe that all other believers will die a martyr’s death. And that it is very important to tell unbelievers now that they need to make sure that they don’t take the mark. All of this talk about being sealed and saved forever by a one time conversion (which I do believe is the mark of church age believers) is doing a huge disservice to those who will find themselves in the tribulation and think that they can take the mark of the beast and just confess later. I think it is important as we discuss salvation and escatology with unbelievers that they understand in no uncertain terms just how horrific the tribulation and hell will be.
After the birth of the church on the day of Pentecost (which was mostly if not all Jewish) did the members of the church continue to practice or celebrate the seven feasts? Here is the reasoning behind my question (and please correct me if I am wrong)… the Lord never intended the Jewish people to stop being Jewish, He just intended for them (like all of us) to be believers in the one whom the Father had sent. So would practicing/celebrating the feasts of Israel be considered legalistic? I can’t wait to hear your answer… I love your ministry and what you do for our Lord, may He continue to richly bless you.
I just heard of first fruit giving, I don’t mind giving and even giving as a first fruit giving, just don’t know enough about the subject and would like to know more about it. Can it still be used for today in a biblical principle? Will God honor it like in the old testament times? Is it wrong?
My husband and I were in Jerusalem some years ago and visited the Temple Institute. I am confused as to why the Jews stopped sacrificing, (I heard that it had to do with the ribbon on the goats no longer turning white) which is a good explanation. Why then would they be ready to “sacrifice again” by getting ready the temple parts and apparently could start sacrificing in less than a day if needed. Can you explain this?
I’ve seen two verses concerning how Judas died; Act 1:18 (With the reward he got for his wickedness, Judas bought a field; there he fell headlong, his body burst open and all his intestines spilled out. and Matt 27:5 So Judas threw the money into the temple and left. Then he went away and hanged himself.
Why does it say he died two different ways?
I have searched your writings about the Book of Revelation. I cannot find any comment on chapter 9 about how they will seek death, but it will flee those who do not have the seal of god on their forehead. What exactly does this mean? They cannot die by bullets, beheading, or anything else? This really freaks me out. They do not have the seal of God. Is this the same as saying they do have the mark of the beast?
I have been studying a lot of ancient history and have noticed something interesting…there are over 300 flood accounts in the legends and folklore of different cultures. This of course makes sense to me because the Bible tells us of the flood. However, something else seems to be emerging as well. Many of the ancient legends contain a visitation by a being who brings to whichever culture, whether it be Sumerian, Egyptian, Myan, or whomever, advanced technology in many different forms from architecture to agriculture. This being also teaches against human sacrifice, to love one another and treat each other with respect. Depending on the culture, he has been described as a god, or part man part god. Is it possible, this was a good Nephilim? We see in scripture that Nephilim existed before and after the flood. Did some go around giving advanced technologies to primitive man? It seems to me the more I dig into our ancient past, the more bizarre it becomes.
I have just read through Genesis and the account of Joseph when he was in Egypt. Then last night a thought occurred to me. Did Pharaoh and his house become believers through the witness of Joseph? Did the favor of Joseph’s life work an even greater work by saving Pharaoh?
After reading your commentary on Hebrews (which in my opinion is your best one yet) a question came to mind. In Hebrews 11:39-40, the writer says “These were all commended for their faith, yet none of them received what had been promised. God had planned something better for us so that only together with us would they be made perfect.” When it says “only together with us would they be made perfect” doesn’t that hint at the old testament believers being resurrected along with the church at the rapture?
Normally, I see old testament believers being resurrected at the end of the tribulation along with martyred tribulation saints since that is where Daniel seems to put the resurrection. However, the Hebrews passage seems to say that old testament saints are “made perfect” along with church believers. Why the apparent contradiction?