Q. My son has encountered a group of very godly young people who have been actively challenging him to follow God with his whole being. They teach that you must be saved only through the sacrifice of Jesus, however,they have just told him they do not believe that Jesus was God, but was a sinless man who lived a perfect life. They do not, therefore, believe in the Trinity.
When my son asked the leadership “what benefit do you gain by believing that Jesus wasn’t God” they laughed and said more than you can believe.
My questions: Are these people saved? What should be the response to them?
Q. When talking to atheists, I am often asked some very difficult questions. It becomes frustrating at times, but I need help on how to properly address certain things they bring up.
One question was one that I probably should expect from them, it goes like this “If God told you to kill someone would you do it?” and of course they bring up Abraham as an example. My response was on what basis do you ask this question? Are you assuming things about God?
Then they tell me its not a hypothetical scenario, and that I’m not answering the question. The thing is that I know they are trying to back me up into a corner. They also said this “Many people have killed because they heard the voice of God”. The conversation then becomes very frustrating, and they often go to make insults from there.
The other thing that I want to address properly is the laws. Christ was sinless and he fulfilled the law. However, atheists always bring up the OT laws-the Mosaic and Levitical laws and so forth, and ask why we don’t follow them. So, if the keeping of the Sabbath is brought up, -and Jesus mentioned if a sheep falls into a pit, will not the man lift it out- how do I answer to them if they say he wasn’t keeping the commandment.
In other words, did the original commandment even restrict works on the Sabbath to the detail the Jews took it as being, or was the Sabbath just a day where no work was to be done in “general”, for lack of a better word.
Any answers or advice would be great, I just want to make sure that I answer them properly.
Q. What is the Biblical position on masturbation? I have sons that will be at the age soon where this subject may come up and truthfully I’m not sure what to tell them. I have done some looking into it and have also asked some people that I respect very much spiritually but I really wanted to get your take on it.
I have looked at the bible and cannot find anything satisfactory on it. I know of the account in Genesis where the guy is killed by the LORD for spilling his seed on the ground. But I have always understood this to be more about his refusal to carry on his brothers line.
I know that pornography is wrong and will tell my sons as much. If your focus (can’t think of a better way to say it) is about you spouse does that change anything? If your spouse has a medical condition or schedule that doesn’t allow for as much gratification as would be desired does that make a difference?
I have pondered if it is sort of a conditional thing too. Kind of like drinking. It is OK to have an alcoholic beverage so long as you are not getting drunk, etc. Are there times and conditions in which this activity is sinful and others where it is not?
I thank you for your willingness to take on subjects that can be a bit, well, sensitive. Thank you for being fearless in doing so.
Q. My question is this, God told Moses that prior to him, nobody knew God by His Name, YHWH, which I understand to be rendered “LORD” throughout the Bible. However, when you read earlier in the book of Genesis, the word “LORD” continues to appear. I could reconcile this if it were used only during the narrative portions of the text, but it is used in the quotes of people throughout the book, both gentile and Jew. Am I taking it too literally when I understand God to have said that Moses was the first person to know Him as YHWH?
Q. I was discussing the matter of Ishtar vs Resurrection Sunday with a pastor, and he suggested I stop worrying about something that God isn’t concerned with, and he cited Romans 14: 5-10. Does this passage apply to my concern? I covet your counsel.
Q. My wife and I have greatly appreciated your encouraging articles and answers. May our Lord bless you each day in your ministry.
Just some thoughts about your answer regarding the KJV’s use of Easter in Acts 12:4. My understanding is that the Passover occurred before the feast of unleavened bread,so that the word was translated in that instance only with reference to the pagan festival that Herod was still waiting for to finish.
Q. I was reading a response to a question another reader had submitted. It was talking about Noah’s time. I got to thinking-if the law wasn’t given to Moses until 1000+ years later, how did Noah understand the concept of clean and unclean? I cant find any scripture that refers to it, so I was wondering how Noah knew.
Q. My question today is why is the word Easter used in Acts 12:4 in the KJV? It is used for the Greek word Pascha (which is the paschal lamb) used in the password meal. I thought that Easter had its roots in paganism, so why would the KJ have used it?
Q. I’m confused about the law and which laws apply to us as Christians. In an answer to a previously asked question about the status of the law you answered that every detail of the law remains in force but that His death protects believers from the consequences of violating it.
I understand Jesus said he didn’t come to abolish the law but to fulfill it, but was he talking about all 613 laws or just the ten commandments or what? If all laws are still in force then am I sinning when I eat bacon or anything else that is not Kosher (Leviticus 11)? And why didn’t Acts 15 include that gentiles are to follow all 613 laws
I’m just really confused because I was taught that the majority of these old laws are no longer valid but wasn’t told why or when they stopped. Let me clarify that I am not trying to follow the law to attain righteousness or salvation but for an unbroken fellowship with God. Can you help me understand this matter? Are we still to follow all 613 laws and if not which ones went away and when?
Q. I have a question regarding the Nephilim. I have been reading about Nephilim lately and I wonder why you feel so strongly that these were a byproduct of fallen angels and humans? I think if you better examine the grammar, you may come to a different conclusion. I don’t know what to think.
I found this article (a composite from several well known theologians) that contradicts your viewpoint, and I just wonder if you have considered this interpretation.