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I’ve been given to understand that when James says that faith without works is a dead faith, he’s referring to someone who’s not saved. That’s what “dead faith” seems to mean in that context. But in Romans 4:5, Paul seems to be saying that if a person does no works, his faith in Him who justifies the ungodly is counted as righteousness. In other words, he’s saved. Please help me reconcile what’s being said in James 2:20-26 and in Romans because both invoke Abraham as an example.

Why is the Church special? We are the only group that is securely saved. The old testament believers, tribulation believers, and millennial believers will all have to provide evidence of their faith to remain saved. Why are only we so blessed?

I was reading “Why Is The Church Special,” on how the remainder of the scarlet ribbon would turn white when the goat was released. I thought I had read one time that after the crucifixion of the Messiah, this phenomenon no longer took place. Can you verify or debunk this?

Have you ever encountered the term “easy believism”? If so, could you comment on the term? I typed it into your site search box and it didn’t come up with anything.

Is it true it only takes a small amount of faith in the Lord to become saved, or do you need a lot? The Bible talks about mustard seed sized faith, but I’ve also heard you need to believe with all of your heart. What if a person definitely wants to be saved but doesn’t think they have the faith they need?

I have heard Acts 19:13-16 used to support that only those called to the ministries of deliverance and spiritual warfare may cast out demons in Jesus’ name. But that doesn’t seem right to me. It seems to me that anyone with the Holy Spirit in them should be able to invoke his name and that forces of hell must obey. I do notice that that the exorcists in Acts 19 were Jews, not Christians, But I don’t see how it relates to the demon’s response. Why was the demon unaffected by the use of the Lord’s name? I thought demons couldn’t stand to hear the name of Jesus. Can you help clarify what this passage is saying?

I have placed my faith in the saving power of Jesus’ sacrifice and therefore I am standing on the promises found in Scripture regarding salvation. However, I am troubled by my inability to find joy in life. I am amazed by persons at church who always seem so happy … who walk around with perpetual smiles on their faces. I know that we live in a sinful and imperfect world that is full of trials … just watching the way people (even professing Christians) treat each other wears me down. I LONG for the rapture or even my own death (though not enough to take an active part in producing it). What am I missing?

I don’t have a problem with the trinity but I have a friend who does. He asked me why did Jesus say “My Father is Greater than I.” How would you answer that question?

Not too long ago I sat under some teaching about the Bema Seat judgment. The teacher said that if we weren’t “redeeming the time” we won’t lose our salvation, but we would not receive any rewards. He said that according to Hebrews 10:31, it was a dreadful thing to fall into the hands of the living God and that is exactly what we will be doing if we aren’t redeeming the time. He also said that the Lord won’t wipe every tear from our eyes until after the 1,000 year reign of Christ. So until then we will feel sorrow for lost loved ones and friends we fell short on preaching the gospel to. That is our punishment for not redeeming the time like we should have. Is this teaching true?

My question is concerning Matthew 14:28. I understand why the disciples were terrified out on a boat during a storm and why they would not be expecting Jesus to come walking by and thought it was a spirit. Peter showed tremendous faith by stepping out of the boat to go to Jesus. The scripture is “And Peter answered him and said, Lord, if it be thou, bid me come unto thee on the water”. Why did Peter say IF it be thou? Would he not have been 100% sure before taking that first step?