Re: Explaining Hebrews 8:11. I am confused about your answer. It appears to cast this verse as if it is addressed to the church today, yet the preceding verses specifically the New Covenant will be with the House of Israel and the House of Judah (vs.8). Verse 10 stipulates their “New Covenant” will be after “those days”. I understand “those days” to be referring to those days where Israel and Judah have completed the 70th week of Daniel chap. 9. For the entire 70 weeks will be under the Old Covenant. This seems to place Heb. 8: 8-12 in the future.
In your study on the Book of Ezekiel you said,
“Although God had known from the beginning of time that Israel would reject the Messiah’s offer of the Kingdom, it was a bona fide offer just the same, and had they accepted it, the prophecies from Ezekiel 36 would have been fulfilled at that time. But they didn’t and the door was opened to the Gentiles, in part to make them envious.”
So, if Israel had accepted Jesus as their Messiah and the Kingdom age (the Millennium) would have begun then, it sounds like Jesus’ death on the cross would not have been necessary. How then would the sins of mankind have been atoned for? “for without the shedding of blood there is no remission of sins”
God tells both Adam and Eve (Genesis 1:28) and Noah (Genesis 9:1) to “Be fruitful and multiply and replenish the Earth. Does the word replenish have the same meaning for both? Did Adam and Eve replenish or fill the earth?