I have read the following on a web site and am wondering if the translations are correct. “There are two different Greek words that are translated as “temple” in English. One word “hieron” is used by Paul when referring to an actual building made with wood and stones. The other word “naos” is used when referring to the spiritual temple of God which refers to His people. The word “naos” is the one used in this 2 Thessalonians 2:4 verse, and therefore is NOT talking about a physical temple.”

I admire your knowledge and absolute faith and often find a great deal of comfort in your writings. But I have to ask….why do you believe….. do you ever have doubt? I think I believe, then I’ll read something, or watch an atheist/Christian debate on TV…and I become full of doubt. I long to be able to read/listen/watch these things and remain strong in my faith, but I always come away shaken and doubting. Thank you, I appreciate your site more than I can say.

I would like to ask you something concerning the Holy Ones who are mentioned in 1st Thessalonians 3:13. Many support the idea that they are those who have been raptured who now are coming with Jesus at His second coming at the end of the tribulation. If this is right that would mean that the words of the first part of the verse can apply only to those who will believe during the tribulation. Is this right?

There are some Christians at my Church who still tell coarse jokes more often than not, they lust openly, and talk about things they shouldn’t. They always want me to hang out with them, and have “fun”. Now, I have just recently came back to Christ, and they still expect me to be the old man I was. My question is this: I know we are saved by grace through faith, not based on works but on Jesus’s obedience alone, and once we are saved, we cannot be lost. However, shouldn’t they be showing some remorse here? Shouldn’t they who claim to be Christians, act like Christians?

Is 3 John 1:2 teaching health and wealth? “Beloved, I wish above all things that thou mayest prosper and be in health, even as thy soul prospereth.”

Re: Matt 2:13 and Luke 2:39. I’ve been trying to work out the timing for these two accounts. Luke has Joseph taking his family back to Nazareth after dedicating Jesus and fulfilling the purification requirements for Mary. Matthew tells us they went to Egypt.

I understand there’s an argument for the Magi coming to Bethlehem as much as two years after the birth. Did they they go to Nazareth for a while after Jesus was born, but then returned to Bethlehem for some reason and stayed there until the Magi showed up. What am I missing?

I know you must have answered this question before, but I cannot find the exact answer I am looking for on your website. When I talk to family, they always ask “why did God let this happen?” referring to tragedies and natural disasters. I would like to have an answer ready when people ask this. Could you address this? Thanks a lot.

My question is based on 2 Tim 2.12. Its a popular view in my church that if you suffer in this life, and respond well to it, you will be rewarded by becoming part of a ruling class in heaven. This sound fine except that isn’t it true that all members of the church will enjoy the same privilege regardless of their life experience (Rev. 1:6)? I am not able to find support for such a hierarchy of believers in Heaven. Is there such a thing?

I was on a site recently that called itself Christian but was basically devoted to bashing Jews and Israel. Their posts were just a lot of what I perceived as anti-Israel propaganda. They claimed that if people were made aware of the evil of Zionism and what it stands for then they would see “the truth.” When I identified myself as a Christian and a supporter of Israel, because of what the Bible says, I was mocked and called a “Zionist”. They told me I needed to have the courage to pray and ask the Lord to show me the truth about Israel and the Jews. Where do you think people like this stand as far as the Lord is concerned?

Matthew 24:15 to the chapter’s end seems pretty straightforward. It covers a period from the middle of Daniel’s 70th week until the LORD’s return. But I’m wondering about the specific time period indicated by Matthew 24:4-12. Could it be that Matthew 24:4-12 covers the first half of the 70th week? After all, verse 13 says that “he who endures to the end, the same shall be saved.” That doesn’t sound like a statement that would characterize the “church age” in general, but a period characterized by a return to the Mosaic Law.