In Mark 16:7 it says, “But go, tell His disciples–and Peter–that He is going before you into Galilee; there you will see Him, as He said to you.”
When the Angel of the Lord told the ladies this in Mark 16:7, I wonder sometimes why the Angel said it this way? It would almost seem as though at that point Peter wasn’t a disciple. Even though I know that is not the case. I wonder why Peter’s name was separate. Was it because Jesus said upon this rock I will build my church? Thanks for the insight, I love your website and the wisdom of your teaching.
You may have answered these questions somewhere that I haven’t been able to find on your site. But I would appreciate an explanation concerning verses Matt. 7:21 – 23. Jesus is saying that not everyone who calls him “Lord” will enter the kingdom of heaven – if they call him Lord – doesn’t that indicate that they believe?
Also James 2:19 which states that “…Even the demons believe and tremble”.
And Matt. 8:28 when the demons in the two men cried out saying “What have we to do with You, Jesus, You Son of God?”……’ Doesn’t that indicate that they believed?
I was brought up on the OSAS belief but these verses have always troubled me. I would appreciate any help you may give so that I could understand the belief only context. I know that no one can earn their way to heaven by good works. I also know it’s all a product of God’s grace that provides salvation. But my understanding is that true believers – those who believe in Jesus as Messiah, who died and rose again and is our only path to heaven must also strive to live their lives in an ongoing process of becoming more like Jesus and without that second part just belief only seems to put one in the shallow ‘demon’ category. Please clarify.
Thank you for your website I have learned so much from it. I understand what James was teaching, that saving faith in Christ would produce good works, not that works saves a person. James I believe was talking to believers. My question is this, why did James have to tell them this at all? If faith in Christ produces good works (and I believe it does) and James was speaking to believers, this is something that just comes naturally, to me it is like telling a fish to swim, or a bird to fly. In my opinion, it seems to have caused a lot of confusion to those who believe a Christian can lose their salvation. Why do you think God inspired James to write it like this? Do you think maybe it was to cause us to dig deeper into His word? This is a prime example I believe of why it is so important to rightly divide the Word of God. I know God in His foreknowledge saw the confusion it would cause, and I know He had a reason for wording it this way. Do you have an opinion of what it was?
Also in a casual reading of James 2:24 in my little finite mind it just seems like a lost man could be confused into thinking if he has good works he is saved. If James would have stopped at verse 23 when he referenced Romans 4:3 it just seems to me it could have avoided so much confusion, but then he dropped the bomb in verse 24. In your opinion why do you think verse 24 was necessary. I would like to know your thoughts on this. I am in no way saying James got it wrong, I believe every word of scripture is God breathed. I just wonder why with God knowing it would cause confusion, why didn’t he word it where there would be no confusion?
I have had failing health for over a year now. I have developed high blood pressure and, I have bones spurs in my spine and destroyed facets in the lower part of my back. If I’m sitting and go to stand you can hear and feel my back crack all the way down to the vertebra. And the pain is so bad. (But according to the doctors my back isn’t bad enough for surgery yet) I’ve gotten addicted to pain medication because the pain is so severe. I’ve begged God to heal my back and as of yet it has not happened. I know that in the book of Revelation it talks about people would not repent of there pharmaceuticals. I do not want to take these drugs. I just don’t want to hurt anymore. How can I get victory?
I read several books written on the subject of the Bible codes. One book explains the phenomenon from the secular stand point, several – from Christian, and one – from Jewish. All these books use the so called ELS (equal length sequencing) method. The Jewish source clams that in the book of Deuteronomy where Torah talks about idols, ELS method reveals the names of Mohamed (Islam) and Yesha (or Yeshua – Jesus). And the word “false” is found next to the word Yesha 3 times. Yet, in the book “Yeshua is my name” written by a Jewish writer who became a Christian, it says that in Isaiah 53, ELS methods reveals the phrase “My name is Yeshua” to identify the “suffering servant” with Jesus. I’m confused. As a statistician I understand how improbable the coincidences are. What is your take on all that. Do you think that the method is reliable? If so, how do you explain the “False Yesha” message.
Many blessings to you for your ministry! My question is Jesus has a glorified body from the resurrection. We will all have these bodies at the Rapture at least the believers will. I was told that in heaven God will have no body. I would think he would have a Glorified body also but maybe not. I mean you have the Holy Trinity. I guess I have just always assumed the Father & Son would have glorified bodies and then you have the spirit part of the Triune as the unseen always working for the glory of God. What do you think?
John’s measuring of the temple in Rev. 11:2 didn’t include the outer court, because it had been given to the gentiles. Is this a result of PM Olmert giving the temple mount to the muslims? The rumors say he’s going to give half of Jerusalem to the Muslims as well. What are your thoughts on this?
I recently read a paper on Catholic apologetics. Having grown up Catholic (though I’m not anymore) I found much of it a surprise. Apparently, at least in my area, the church didn’t want to make too much noise.
My question is, now that Catholics are attempting to refute the concept of Sola Scriptura by saying that it is self-defeating in that scripture itself doesn’t claim to be the only spiritual source of truth and that they are seeing that as a green light to push their own doctrines such as transubstantiation, purgatory, and veneration of Mary and the saints.
I was wondering, while very possibly true the apostles didn’t write down everything they taught necessarily, it could be possible to refute some of these things by exposing their contradiction to established infallible scripture. Such as transubstantiation being a violation of God’s command to not consume blood. I was wondering if you could teach some on Christian apologetics and defense against those who would try to introduce pagan influences into the church?
I’ve been in a relationship with my boyfriend for almost 6 years now, and I’m still not sure if he’s a believer. Is it a sin to continue a relationship with him and even marrying him if he still ends up being a non-believer? I’m very concerned for him. If I stay on with him, I really hope another few years down the road, I’ll see changes in his belief because I would like to build a family with a husband and a father who goes to church with me and my children.
But my family doubts he’ll change since we’ve been dating for 6 years already. But I believe nothing is impossible with God as I know it takes great faith for it to happen. To stay positive, I view it as a time of testing and trial from God. Having said that,I’m still rather confused and don’t know what else to do next. Will other Christians view it as a sin? Will my parents be upset? Will God be angry and punish me?