Recently I asked for prayers for my daughter and myself as we are both due to have surgery in a few months. I did so on a message board that I get on when talking to my friends. Not long after I wrote the prayer request one of my friends messaged me back and told me they would keep us in their prayers and told me to check out (a currently popular self help book). Have you seen the movie or read the book? What is your opinion and how should I address this person?
Wouldn’t it be more accurate to state that the Bible was written under either the “guidance” or “authority” of the Holy Spirit rather than the “inspiration”? I realize that at first blush this might seem like hair splitting; however, I think that using a word slightly stronger than “inspiration” would better convey the authority of the Gospels. People might question less and read more.
Re: Inspiration of Scripture. We often hear people claiming this confidently but is there really a verse that really claims that the entire Bible is the word of God? 2 Tim. 3: 16 speaks along those lines but to me it refers more to Old Testament scriptures rather than all other scriptures, because much lf the New Testament hadn’t been written yet. What are your views on this?
Re: Matt. 18:15-17. I read these verses in William Barclay’s commentary in which he essentially says these have been misapplied. He further states that the language indicates to him that Jesus could not have said this in that specific way, i.e., it sounds too legalistic for Jesus, and sounds more like an ecclesiastic committee’s work. Also, Jesus would not say to take the matter to the Church, since the Church was not yet existent. This throws me a bit on the basis of inerrancy, so it must be some kind of interpretation that stands. Your thoughts?
We all know that there are different methods of interpreting Scripture. Some “spiritualize” it and attribute it to allegory. Others, such as me and you interpret Scripture “literally, historically and grammatically.” Is there any place in Scripture where God told us how he wanted us to interpret his Word? How did we come to the consensus that Scripture was to be interpreted “this” way as opposed to “that” way?
I think I understand the basis for the validity of the Bible, and why arguments against it don’t hold up. However, I did have an issue that I don’t feel comfortable answering yet.
How would you answer a person who asked why God wouldn’t also “inspire” the copyists of the original manuscripts since God is omniscient and therefore knew that these were the (very important) copies which would be referenced for billions of people in the future? We take it by faith that the original manuscripts are absolutely perfect and without error because we don’t have the originals with us now, because we believe God is able to inspire his writers (from OT to NT times.)
I became pregnant with my high school sweetheart and we got married. Four years later I met another man and fell in love. I left my first husband and married this man, committing adultery. I could give excuses for why I left my first husband but there really is no excuse for what I did. I know it was wrong.
After my second husband and I had been married about 2 years we also had a child and I started feeling very guilty about what I had done to my first husband. I went back and asked him to forgive me and told him I would come back if he wanted me to, but that I would have to bring my new baby.
He said he forgave me but didn’t want me to come back. I feel like I did what I could to fix things. I don’t want to go to hell and I don’t want any one else to go to hell because of any thing I’ve done.
Later I was baptized and promised God that no matter what happened I would never get another divorce. Now my second husband and I are getting ready to celebrate our 24th wedding anniversary. The question is, am I living in sin because my first husband is still living, or has God forgiven my sin?