Why do we hear scholars talking about Greek or Hebrew meanings of words in the Bible? When does one know that he must look for a Greek or a Hebrew meaning of a word?

My friend just sent me the following. “In Matthew 24:29-31 Jesus says He will not send His angels to collect the elect (us) until after the tribulation. The word there for elect is used thirteen times in the New testament and always refers to the church. Pre trib was a hoax. I am more and more convinced of it every day I read my Bible. Thessalonians clearly states, “The dead in Christ will rise first, then we who are alive will be caught up with them in the air…” And the dead in Christ rise in Revelation 20:4, after the tribulation. As it turns out, we are no more deserving of escaping hard times than the first century church was when the Romans started persecuting them and throwing them to the lions.” What would I say to my friend? I am not secure enough in scripture to handle it.

I’m having a hard time wrapping my head around a couple things. First, The Word existed from the beginning along with the Father and the Holy Spirit. Several times He appeared as a man, such as to Abram. But when He appeared to Moses He appeared as a burning bush. Why didn’t He just appear as a man as He did other times? Second, when Jesus was born how did The Word become part of Jesus? Jesus had his own spirit and soul, so did The Word reside in Jesus or was The Word Jesus Himself?

I have a question concerning your article, “The Passover: History And Prophecy”

You make the suggestion that Jesus ate the Passover meal with his disciples on the evening of the 14th (beginning of the day). I believe this is a mistake as Jesus was on the cross at the exact moment the rest of the Passover lambs were being prepared 20 hours or so later.

Besides the Passover was eaten at sundown of the 15th. It seems confusing to assert the Last Supper was the Passover; even though the wine thing you present was really cool.

Otherwise, I love your stuff. I look forward to all your articles.

With Pesach approaching, Exodus 13:6-7 says:

Seven days thou shalt eat unleavened bread, and in the seventh day shall be a feast to the LORD. Unleavened bread shall be eaten seven days; and there shall no leavened bread be seen with thee, neither shall there be leaven seen with thee in all thy quarters.

Did Jesus enter Jerusalem 4 days before his crucifixion and then 3 days to rise making the 7th day the feast to the LORD?

I am trying to get the 7 days of Passover with Jesus. Can you please explain the unleavened/leavened bread with Jesus?

I have a question bout Balaam in the book of Numbers. He was obviously a legitimate prophet in the sense that he spoke with God. But I am wondering why it is God gave him that gift, why He gave him permission to go then got mad (though I do understand that there is God’s perfect will and permissive will). And lastly if God was in a relationship with Balaam shouldn’t it have been to further His plan in which case wouldn’t it make sense that God would have been already trying to get Balaam to join Moses or aid in that effort in some way? I was just curious about these things and I know none of them are explicitly answered in scripture, but wondered if maybe there were any traditions associated with them. Thanks for your help.

First of all, thank you for your wonderful website.

I have a question about Matthew 5:39, where it says “But I tell you not to resist an evil person. But whoever slaps you on your right cheek, turn the other to him also”. By this, shouldn’t we all be pacifists? Doesn’t this mean we should dismantle our armed forces, take no action to prevent Iran becoming nuclear, and just roll over and let it nuke us? Doesn’t this mean that fighting against Nazi Germany and Imperial Japan in WWII, we were doing the wrong thing, and the right thing would have been to let them conquer us? That Israel resisting Hamas’ attempts to obliterate it is wrong? That we should take no forceful action to defend ourselves or anything else, ever?

RE: Zechariah 12:2-3. My Bible notes say this passage is talking about before a battle right before Armageddon but it certainly does seem to describe how the World is feeling about Gaza and Israel right now. What do you think?

My brother recommended your web site and I have found comfort in your responses. My question has to do with why does God require innocent blood to be shed? Thank you in advance for any thoughts you share on this topic.

As Christians are we to celebrate Passover in like manner as the Jews, instead of Resurrection Sunday, so called Easter? Or is Passover for the Jews only?