My question is the meaning of verse 7 in context of the prophetic chapter 45 of Isaiah. It appears God is relaying a message to Cyrus, king of Persia to convince him who He is. Your insight is always appreciated.

When reading the Bible, how can one claim a verse of scripture for themselves? For example, Jeremiah 29:11. I have heard so many claim this verse as their own, believing that God intended this for them and their current situation. But as you read this chapter, it is specific to Israel and God releasing them from Babylonian captivity. As I write to you on this, my heart is pounding. I want to claim or pray a verse for my situation, but I am thinking that it is just futile worthless hope. How can I apply verses of God’s word to my situation today when they are part of a bigger issue and theme. Do you understand what I am saying?

You say in your answer, “By definition a temptation has to be desirable to the person being tempted.” Is it not also a desire to do something that we know is wrong? I understand that when we are being tempted we have a desire in our heart to sin in some way.

I understand from the verses on anger and lust that our hearts can sin even if we don’t act on it and the temptation to sin begins with our heart’s evil desire. With that in mind I too don’t understand how Jesus was tempted in all ways-just as we are and yet was without sin? (Hebrews 4:15)

An issue which bothers me is this, I know Jesus was conceived by a virgin. How then is he being linked in genealogy to Abraham and David if Joseph is not his father. Joseph, husband to Mary is also listed in this genealogy as giving legitimacy to the fact that Jesus as a man is a descendant of Abraham. It does not challenge my faith but it keeps on popping up as a question in my mind. Probably the devil trying to twist me around to doubt my faith. What can you say about it.

My question is in relation to the Exodus. There is talk that the Bible translators mistranslated Red Sea and it should read the Reed Sea. Is this true, and if so why was that? Why didn’t the translators say Reed Sea? I know of course that the translation (or mistranslation) does not change the fact that God’s hand was at work and that through that miracle his glory was shown to all.

Do you believe there could have been a pre-Adamite civilization and if you don’t would you say why false teachers cling to this? I found some sites that give compelling reasons for its existence, but I have also found sites that come down hard on this teaching. Could you please share your thoughts?

My question concerns fasting. I read somewhere – can’t remember where, though – that we should not just pick a day and fast. That we need to feel led to do so concerning something specific, ie. healing or deliverance for someone, or for the answer to a serious problem. How do you feel about fasting and how do know that is what God wants you to do?

I know how strongly you believe in OSAS. But what about “believers” who have never been taught about the need for repentance? Isn’t it true that no repentance is evidence of no conviction, which means no conversion? These people may think they’re saved forever, but are they?

My question regards being filled with The Holy Spirit. I do not speak in tongues nor do I have a prayer language, although I have prayed and prayed to receive such. However, I feel God with me all the time. He answers my prayers ALL THE TIME. I know without a doubt that I am HIS and He is my Lord, King and Savior (and that should be enough right?) But is there anything in scriptures (other than the gift of tongues) that is evidence that The Holy Spirit is residing in a person? I would like to reference a scripture when talking to my daughters about this.

I recently found your article entitled “solving the three day, three night mystery” in which you provide evidence for a Thursday crucifixion and a Sunday resurrection. It was very helpful and I want to thank you for your efforts. In it you state “…at sunrise it was Friday day, day two” This leads me to ask what is meant in Luke 24:21 when Jesus met with the men on the road to Emmaus and they told him that it was the “third day since all this took place.

The road to Emmaus event took place on Sunday day (day three according to them) which would make Saturday day 2 and Friday day 1 since Christ was crucified. I just wonder how you make the 3 days 3 nights of Matthew 12:40, plus the Thursday crucifixion theory fit with Luke 24:21?