I have heard Acts 19:13-16 used to support that only those called to the ministries of deliverance and spiritual warfare may cast out demons in Jesus’ name. But that doesn’t seem right to me. It seems to me that anyone with the Holy Spirit in them should be able to invoke his name and that forces of hell must obey. I do notice that that the exorcists in Acts 19 were Jews, not Christians, But I don’t see how it relates to the demon’s response. Why was the demon unaffected by the use of the Lord’s name? I thought demons couldn’t stand to hear the name of Jesus. Can you help clarify what this passage is saying?
Is it true it only takes a small amount of faith in the Lord to become saved, or do you need a lot? The Bible talks about mustard seed sized faith, but I’ve also heard you need to believe with all of your heart. What if a person definitely wants to be saved but doesn’t think they have the faith they need?
I was reading “Why Is The Church Special,” on how the remainder of the scarlet ribbon would turn white when the goat was released. I thought I had read one time that after the crucifixion of the Messiah, this phenomenon no longer took place. Can you verify or debunk this?
Why is the Church special? We are the only group that is securely saved. The old testament believers, tribulation believers, and millennial believers will all have to provide evidence of their faith to remain saved. Why are only we so blessed?
I’ve been given to understand that when James says that faith without works is a dead faith, he’s referring to someone who’s not saved. That’s what “dead faith” seems to mean in that context. But in Romans 4:5, Paul seems to be saying that if a person does no works, his faith in Him who justifies the ungodly is counted as righteousness. In other words, he’s saved. Please help me reconcile what’s being said in James 2:20-26 and in Romans because both invoke Abraham as an example.
I have a question about 2 Thes. chapter 2. Verses 1 and 2 seem to be one sentence and continuing thought. If so, that would seem that “the coming of our Lord Jesus and our gathering together to Him” in verse 1, and “the day of the Lord” in verse 2 are the same thing. Verse 3 says it (apparently both things mentioned in verses 1 and 2) won’t happen until the man of lawlessness is revealed. Verse 8 says the lawless one will be revealed after the restrainer is removed. Obviously the revealing of the man of lawless can’t happen both before and after the same event so what am I missing?
You’ve stated that Daniel 9:24-27 tells when to expect Christ to come but it is His coming as King that it talks about. How did the Magi, taught by Daniel’s book know when he was to be born? and where is the “star” prophecy? Did the Mazzaroth display it as Psalm 19 might indicate or was it really Balaam’s prophecy in Numbers 24:17? Also did Herod die in 4 BC or is there enough doubt that recent claims of 1BC could be true?
About Matt. 7:13-17: “Enter through the narrow gate; for wide is the gate and broad is the road that leads to destruction, and many enter through it. But small is the gate and narrow the road which leads to life, and only a few find it”. Many people seem to interpret this to mean we have to add our own effort to the salvation equation by “walking the straight and narrow” as they say.
I just read an article which gave a view of 2 Thessalonians 2 that I have never heard before. The author said in 2 Thessalonians 2:4 Paul called the Temple “the Temple of God’, which could not be the case if the Church was still here, for we are the “Temple of God”(1 Cor. 3:16). I never thought of that before. And with the following verses speaking of the restrainer being taken out of the midst it fits the context perfectly. I believe there are both grammatical and contextual reasons to identify the Holy Spirit as the restrainer. What are the other views concerning the identity of the restrainer?