I would like to know what Jesus did those 3 days after he died on the cross and prior to resurrection. Was there more punishment to endure? If so, what was it for exactly? I have had some interpretation on it but not much scripture.

My granddaughter and I are studying “The life of Moses” this year in Bible Study Fellowship. I thought some of it would be something of a slog, but God’s set up of the whole sacrificial system is such a beautiful graphic picture of all that Jesus has done for us, that it is wonderful.

But one thing that I don’t understand is this. When the “stiff necked” people (I love that-aren’t we all?) disobeyed, God became so angry. After the golden calf, He threatened to start all over with just Moses and not lead with His presence. There are many failures that brought on God’s anger. My problem is that I know God knew this would all happen ahead of time and He knew He would not wipe everyone out and start over with Moses. So why such anger? It almost comes across to me that God loses control. And I know that is not true. Can you help me here?

I’ve noticed in the New Testament that references to “a brother” refers to another Christian. Am I wrong? Are you required to forgive unbelievers when they mistreat you horribly without apology? As I understand things, God cannot forgive me of my daily sins unless I confess them and offer them up in prayer (Earthly Fellowship!). Suppose the pagan doesn’t ever admit (confess) to sinning against you and feels they are justified in their behavior. Can you forgive them for something that isn’t brought into the light by BOTH concerned parties? Time heals all wounds, but what about wounds that keep getting infected with fresh injuries? Also, the dispute resolution process referred to in Mathew 18 would work great for Christians, but what about pagans? And what does it mean to treat a person“as you would a pagan”?

I understand that there is only one Author of the Bible. However, how many Spirit-directed writers contributed to the finished Word we read today? Also, what is the span of time involved?

I have a great question that I have been wondering for a long time now. When was the written language first created? Did Adam and Eve first communicate through their minds? Or did they have the Hebrew language and letters right from the beginning with pencils and paper? Did Adam say to Eve go get those pencils and write down the names of the animals?

Many companies have gone bankrupt in past few years and have changed the accounting on what is the Gross(first fruit)- I assume that monies that were deferred to a retirement under a defined benefit plan would be tithed on when one receives it since there is no dollar amount associated with that future, deferred income.

Now, a lot of companies have placed the retirement income, deferred income, in a defined contribution plan, with an actual dollar amount associated with it. It is under my responsibility to manage, but it is a future income, deferred income, that I may or may not get because our future time on earth is not guarnteed. However, both are the same , retirement income or deferrred income. The management of those funds have just changed.

So what is considered first fruits in both cases? What about IRA’s? I am not talking about deferrred investment income. I believe that is what God blesses and is first fruit. However, I am really confused on retirement because of the many ways retirement is handled: Pensions, Seps, Social security, 401ks, 401A, IRAs, DB plans, DC plans. Please give me your input, and any scripture to support it .

Who was Zerubbabel? I know he was used by the LORD to rebuild the temple, but there is a verse in Hag. 2:23 that really puzzles me:

But when this happens, says the LORD Almighty, I will honor you, Zerubbabel son of Shealtiel, my servant. I will treat you like a signet ring on my finger, says the LORD, for I have specially chosen you. I, the LORD Almighty, have spoken!

Am I I looking for something that’s not there?

In Galatians 1:6-7 Paul says if any man or an angel from heaven preached any other gospel than the one he preached (The Gospel of Grace) or (The Gospel in 1 Cor 15:1-4), let him be accursed. We know Paul was the Apostle to the gentiles. The only other gospel is the Gospel of the Kingdom which was for the Jews. It seems that Paul is saying that the things that come out of the gospel of the kingdom should not be preached to the Church unless its in accord with what He preached. How do you see this ?

Were angels created with free will? If Lucifer fell from grace by exercising free will in declaring himself God’s equal, and about one-third of the remaining angels in heaven apparently did the same and followed Lucifer when he was banished to earth, does that mean that any of the remaining two-thirds of the angel complement still remaining with God in heaven could yet deny God and also be banished to earth to dwell in Satan’s realm? And will fallen angels be judged in The Great White Throne Judgment, or is that reserved for human unrepentant sinners only?

Thank you for continuing to render concise clarity to the matrix of God’s teachings.