I have a question concerning the judgments of Revelation. In chapter 9 when the locusts are released, God says not to harm the grass or trees nor the servants that have His seal, the only group of people it mentions being sealed are the 144,000 witnesses. Does this mean even those who have turned to Christ after the Rapture will face these judgments and punishments? Or will they be spared as well being tribulation saints?
I believe you are correct in that when a certain number is saved the rapture will take place. A lot of events have taken place on feast days. Why couldn’t the rapture happen on a feast day? God would know when the number would come up and make sure it would happen on a feast day.
Re: Rev 7:14. “And I said unto him, Sir, thou knowest. And he said to me, These are they which came out of great tribulation, and have washed their robes, and made them white in the blood of the Lamb.” What does “out of” mean? Isn’t it the clear clue of when the multitude (the church/body of Christ)will be raptured?
Luke 21:24 says, “Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.” Earlier the knowledge of the terrible destruction of the city had caused our Lord to weep (Luke 19:41). Does this mean that Jerusalem must be destroyed again before the ‘times of the Gentiles be fulfilled’ and the Rapture takes place? It seems right around the corner but I would like your opinion or clarification on this verse.
RE: Doctor assisted Death. I totally agree with you that salvation comes from believing (trusting and accepting) on the finished work of Jesus Christ on the cross. Jesus Christ + nothing = salvation. BUT… over and over in the New Testament it speaks of the transformation involved in salvation. Anything other than following Christ after being saved gives no evidence of salvation to either the world or the person. That should cause concern. The “prayer of salvation” can be said many times without the belief that is required. I know it’s hard to explain without risking legalism, but please warn people against easy believism and it’s loss of the abundant life, eternal reward and, possibly, real salvation.
I know that you and most other leading prophecy teachers hold that the battle of Gog Magog, or the battle of Ezekiel 38-39, is a distinctly different and separate battle from Armageddon, with Gog Magog possibly occurring shortly prior to the beginning of Daniel’s 70th week and Armageddeon coming near the end of it. Here’s what I just can’t get past, though. If this is the case, then why would Ezekiel not mention Armageddon? I mean, he leads us through the restoration of Israel, etc. in the chapters preceding Gog Magog, and then it’s Gog Magog in chapters 38 and 39, and then in chapter 40 until the end it’s all about the temple and temple worship, etc. No Armageddon.
Many people teach that if a man has been divorced that he does not qualify to be a Pastor, Deacon or Preacher. I struggle with this view because it seems as if divorce is worse than murder or other commandments that are broken…if breaking one commandment is equal to have broken them all…how is it possible that a man who murdered someone and repents and is saved can be qualified…but a man who has been divorced and has repented and been saved is not qualified…why does the divorced man have to live with his sin and the stigma but the murderer is white as snow…does God not forgive and forget our sins?
What makes you say that Paul is referring to 2 different events in 2 Thessalonians 2 v 1? Why cant it mean 1 event?.. simply Jesus comes and we’re gathered to Him. For instance if I wrote ” I had a friend arrive at my house and I went out to meet her” surely it would be obvious that its only one event? It would be silly to take it to mean they were 2 separate events because the sentence has been joined together by the word and.