Q. Thank you for your site. It is a wonderful resource for both new and old Christians. The question I have relates to the redemption of our sins. We know that Christ died for us, and by his death he paid the penalty for our sins if we chose to accept it. His blood was so holy that even one drop of it is sufficient to clear the world of all of man kinds sins, truly an amazing concept and wonderful act of love by our creator. The question which comes to mind though is what about the fallen angels? I know there does now appear to be any scripture which says that any of the 1/3rd of the angelic host who rebelled with Satan can repent, but given that Christ has paid the penalty of death for sin is it theoretically possible for a fallen angel to repent of his/its sins and accept the blood of christ as redemption for its sins?
Q. According to my understanding of Satan’s perception of victory at the Cross, was it because he, like the Temple hierarchy, expected only a conquering King when Messiah came? That is, Satan did not understand the dual nature of Jesus’ coming to earth, first as the Suffering Servant, and only then, much later, as the King. Therefore, when he killed Jesus on the Cross, he believed he had thwarted God’s plan for the Messiah to become King of the earth, and it would be back to the drawing board for God. Have I got it right?
Q. I was just reading your article on “No one knows the Day or the Hour”. It is very good. After many years of things that were viewed in the traditional sense that didn’t make sense, I finally realized that the Book of Matt. was all Jewish. Why would Jesus talk about things that were going to be revealed by Paul, anyway? The Church is no where in view in the Gospels. My question is, after studying Revelation many times I have come to the conclusion that the seven letters to the assemblies are telling the remnant in the Trib., of the history of Israel’s failures and what they need to do to avoid the same failures. Of course God will not let them fail this time. What do you think? I think that Rev. is mainly Jewish as well. As in the first letter, I see that as representing Israel’s espousal, the second letter, Israel’s wanderings and the book of Numbers. The third one the wilderness period and the fourth , Kings etc. It makes more sense that it being Church or Body of Christ requirements. The Body of Christ has already overcome, haven’t they?? I think we can learn from the Book of Revelation but I never thought John represented the Church in 4:1 being taken up. John was called up to watch what was going to take place in the future, on the Day of the Lord. Do you think I might be right on this?
Q. I am wondering how can the 2nd coming can be like a thief in the night when the exact timing is spelled out in scripture in days and in feasts? Also, in the same way how could Israel pray that their departure not be in the winter or on the Sabbath, in relation to the 2nd coming? I thought this would be in reference to the fleeing from the Admonination of Desolation and the subsequent fury of the anti-christ which is unleashed. Even in this I can understand how it could be moved to miss a Sabbath, but with all the feasts lined up how could the winter be missed?
Q. First of all I love your sight, I just found it a few weeks ago and can’t wait to read it everyday. I am confused about the verses in 1 Thes. 4:13-17 I believe that when a born again Christian dies their spirit and soul goes to be with the Lord. My confusion is if the dead are already with the Lord, and we all get new bodies, why in verse 14 will God bring them with him and then rapture them back up?
Q. What is your understanding of ‘Baptism in/with the Holy Spirit’. We have members in our group – which by the way is a mix of denominations incl. RC – on this subject. All agree we need to be baptized to witness to others our faith in Christ and that this is by immersion. However some maintain that you receive the Spirit after the water baptism. Some say you may never receive Him, some say (and they are the ones I agree with) that nowadays we receive the Spirit as guide, helper and rebuker of our conscience the minute we pray the sinners prayer and accept Christ. In the apostles days it happened suddenly as at pentecost, by laying on of hands by an apostle or at/after baptism so there seems to be no clear answer. For some this has become a sticking point in accepting brothers or sisters as true believers. Can you please give us some insight?
Q. I was channel-surfing last night, and began to watch ( a well known christian TV personality). All these years, he’s said that the earth is young, and that the evolutionists had it all wrong. Now, he says that earth is thirteen billion years old, and that there was another creation, of man. It is my belief that (he) has gone around the bend. What are your thoughts?
Q. We unfortunately live in an area where there are mostly liberal and emerging churches which we would have difficulty attending for doctrinal reasons. For many years we attended a steadfast Bible-believing church quite far away from us. We can no longer afford the gas to attend that particular church and have been “orphans” for awhile. We have not yet found another church to attend near us and are certainly uncomfortable with the situation. But we do want to at least resume tithing. How do we determine appropriate places to give our tithe if we temporarily don’t have a church home or if we end up having to keep worshiping at home? We also have dear elderly parents who are in as difficult a financial condition as we and we are trying to help them with everything we have. Is it alright to use any of our actual tithe money for them for their necessities of life like groceries and utilities? Or is that the wrong use of tithe money? Is tithe money only to be used through an official church organization to keep order and efficiency, or can individual Christians decide, within reason, where their own tithes would best be used?
Q. Thank you for answering the many questions that you receive. Your insight and knowledge helps many in their understanding of the Bible and living the Christian life with a world view. One of the scripture texts which the Preterists use in arguing for the second coming in some form having taken place before the destruction of the Jerusalem in 70 AD is found in Matthew 16:28, Mark 9:1 and Luke 9:27. Jesus is telling His disciples about His need to die and His future second coming bringing rewards to His followers and makes the statement “I tell you the truth, some who are standing here will not taste death fefore they see the Son of Man coming in His Kingdom.” Preterists take this as His second coming taking place in some way before some of these disciples died and His kingdom being establshed at that time. Of course, none of the many other things which had to take place before Christ returns as stated in Revelation had and has not happened and so the Preterists are wrong in the view but what did Christ mean in this statement about some of these disciples not seeing death before He comes in His kingdom? Did he mean that upon His resurrection, His kingdom would be in his followers (believers) hearts?