I have a few questions I was wondering if you could possibly answer?

1.) does the rapture happen before the anti-Christ appears, or after?

2.) I have asked the Lord to forgive me and my sins, will i be left behind if the rapture happens? do i need to be baptized or go to church in order to be saved from the tribulation?

3.) I’ve heard rumors of military personnel being implanted with microchips with like GPS’s or something like that to help find them if they become POW’s. If I joined the military and got this, would I be damned to hell? Because I thought the mark of the beast means you were swearing loyalty to the anti-Christ?

One more question about tithing:

There are a few Christian charities that I mail checks to … organizations that are helping Christians in the middle east. Since I am mailing a check (along with all of the personal data that is printed on a check ie name, address, etc) I am not giving “in secret” as the bible says. Is this wrong? It is only a “secret” from my family and friends. Your advice would be welcomed.

I have been researching this question all week and have not found a satisfactory answer. So, I turn to you.

Exodus 30:9: You shall not offer strange incense on it, or a burnt offering, or a grain offering; nor shall you pour a drink offering on it.

I can understand the prohibition for strange incense. Why not the others?

I am teaching re: the Millennial Temple, and was most interested in your teaching on the subject in a recent article, and the suggestion that Shiloh may be the location. I agree that the Age of Grace Interrupted the Age of Law, and it (age of Law) will take up again during the Tribulation period.

I can understand grain offerings, thanks offerings, etc, being offered, but when it comes to blood sacrifice, how is that reconciled with the book of Hebrews in which Paul is admonishing believing Jews not to go back to Judaism; emphasizing that Jesus’ sacrifice was once and for all.? I realize that there were blood sacrifices other than the sacrifice on the Day of Atonement, picturing Jesus’ atonement sacrifice. Can you shed some additional light on this?

Only recently have I heard this theory about Noah and his family being “Perfect in His Generations” as meaning he was totally human and not part Nephilim. Where do you get that? Does the definition of the original words in the original Hebrew imply genetic purity or does it mean simply, “one who walks with God?”

Genesis 6:9 states, “Noah was a righteous man, blameless among the people of his time, and he walked with God.” This seems to be the context of him being “perfect” in his generation because the verse is speaking of behavior and a spiritual condition, not a genetic condition. I can’t see how the Nephilim fits in the text of what the passage is talking about. It seems to me that just because verses 1-4 in Genesis 6 introduce the Nephilim, it doesn’t mean the rest of the passage is talking about genetic impurity. This gives an “excuse” for man’s sin as being because they had “demon” blood in them and not because we’re sons of Adam – born with a sin nature.

I am new to your website and am enjoying it very much. Thank you for your obedience to our Lord. I have a friend who buys into everything (blows with the wind) and I am very worried for her. She has come to me with things like soaking prayer and healing rooms and such. I have worked at finding scriptures on my own and now with the help of your wonderful website. I would appreciate knowing any information you have on these things.

When the Bible mentions Gentiles, I believe that it is speaking specifically to a certain race of people. For example, in Genesis chapter 10, it talks about the sons of Noah and their offspring. The Bible states that one of Noah’s sons Japheth, is where the Gentiles originated. And when the gentiles are mentioned in the New Testament, I believe that they were referring to the Romans. What’s your thought on this?

In your 8-6-09 Article regarding “Will Babylon Be Ready” you stated that we are several years away from conditions being right for the start of Daniel’s 70th week. It is my understanding that there is nothing in the Bible that would indicate a several year gap between the rapture of the church and the start of Daniel’s 70th week. Therefore, keeping in mind that no one knows the day or the hour that God will call for his people, it does sound like you are implying that we are still several years away from the rapture taking place.

I am trying to understand something. Will we have the desire to sin in heaven? I understand that our sin nature will finally be gone and the tempter Satan will be dealt with but won’t we still have emotions and desires? Some of the angels sinned in heaven. I assume they had no sin nature to begin with. Wasn’t Satan also created without a sin nature? Is there anything in the Bible that gives us assurance that “sin” will be finally gone in the end or is that unknown? If the possibility is not gone then does that mean Jesus remains our intercessor for eternity?

In your Aug 9, 2009, response to “Tithing: Cause and Effect,” your second sentence, below, sounds so much like the Prosperity Doctrine taught on some web sites. Is the entire message of those sites, therefore, suspect?

You said, “When we give solely out of gratitude, not expecting anything in return, God is free to bless us. But when we give with an expectation of receiving we’re actually being greedy, not grateful, and the motive of our heart is wrong.”

It is precisely the evident greed and lavish life styles of some “ministers of God,” when I am often just “squeaking by,” that discourages me from tithing. (That, and my own greed, to be truthful.)