I became pregnant with my high school sweetheart and we got married. Four years later I met another man and fell in love. I left my first husband and married this man, committing adultery. I could give excuses for why I left my first husband but there really is no excuse for what I did. I know it was wrong.
After my second husband and I had been married about 2 years we also had a child and I started feeling very guilty about what I had done to my first husband. I went back and asked him to forgive me and told him I would come back if he wanted me to, but that I would have to bring my new baby.
He said he forgave me but didn’t want me to come back. I feel like I did what I could to fix things. I don’t want to go to hell and I don’t want any one else to go to hell because of any thing I’ve done.
Later I was baptized and promised God that no matter what happened I would never get another divorce. Now my second husband and I are getting ready to celebrate our 24th wedding anniversary. The question is, am I living in sin because my first husband is still living, or has God forgiven my sin?
I think I understand the basis for the validity of the Bible, and why arguments against it don’t hold up. However, I did have an issue that I don’t feel comfortable answering yet.
How would you answer a person who asked why God wouldn’t also “inspire” the copyists of the original manuscripts since God is omniscient and therefore knew that these were the (very important) copies which would be referenced for billions of people in the future? We take it by faith that the original manuscripts are absolutely perfect and without error because we don’t have the originals with us now, because we believe God is able to inspire his writers (from OT to NT times.)