I was listening to a radio show about the Church of Laodicea, the commentator was saying that the definition of Laodicea is rule of the people and I wondered if this could actually mean social justice since this is what a lot of modern churches are striving for instead of the Gospel. Maybe another indicator that we are in the end days. Just wanted to see what you thought of that.

If as Dan. 9:25 reveals that it would be 69 Weeks or 483 years until the Messiah would arrive, and as many suggest it was Palm Sunday (the Triumphal Entry), and if therefore the Messiah was then Crucified on Thursday or Friday, you decide, then how do you account for the miscellaneous additional 4-5 days beyond Palm Sunday? Are you suggesting that God ‘approximated’ the prophetic Crucifixion of His Only Begotten Son, Yeshua Jesus? And did the Temple system and the Mosaic Law come to an ‘official’ end at that point, even though the Temple stood thirty some odd years afterwards?

I love God’s word and have several versions I read. (KJV, NASB & NIV). My son was recently saved and I gave him an NIV version. I grew up on the KJV & have memorized many passages from it. It is beautiful but sometimes a little difficult.

My pastor only condones KJV in our little church and states that he feels that the encroachment of the newer versions is just Satan’s way of causing more division among God’s people. And that the newer versions were taken from more recently discovered and less reliable Greek translations.

I respect his view but watch carefully for any gross distortions and so far feel comfortable enough with all the versions. Please help clarify this more for me … especially the Greek translations he has spoken about. Thank you so much for your ministry.

I have been helping to financially support several family members for the past few years with cash gifts towards their food, clothing, medicine, auto repairs, household goods, vacation money and other expenses. During this time I have not tithed my 10% but have made small donations when attending church. I have been considering my financial support to family members as my tithe, keeping in mind that instead of my tithe going to a church organization for their distribution, I am giving it directly to those in need. Is this Biblically correct or is this not considered proper tithing?

I was reading in Exodus chapter 24 and I have some questions. It talks about the Book of the Covenant. From reading the chapter, I get the feeling it is associated with the 10 Commandments in some way. What is its purpose? I have heard of the Mosaic Covenant. Is this the same thing?

I am of the understanding that when we become a Christian we are baptized into Jesus Christ, yet there is a ‘Messianic’ Jewish teacher on television who teaches that when we accept Jesus Christ we are grafted in and become that “one new man”as a Jew. I think he says ‘a spiritual Jew’. While reading Romans 2:29 it says “He is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.” I understand the circumcision of the heart part, but I am not understanding the connection between the Jew inwardly. As Christians we don’t keep the law, so I don’t understand how this applies.

In Matt. 6:31-33 Jesus said we are to seek the Kingdom first, then all these things will be added to us. But isn’t there a little more to it than just being hopeful for the things of the Kingdom? Shouldn’t we be concerned about our Spiritual growth too? It is almost like some people are so excited for Christ’s return they don’t see the need to address Spirituality in this life, or does that just take care of itself as we focus on Jesus’ return? Jesus told us to “Occupy till I come.” Doesn’t that also mean we are to live life, plan, enjoy His blessings, while we build a strong relationship with Him, still putting Him first?

The new man in Christ does not have a sinful nature. When you received Christ, you were also circumcised by putting away your sinful nature. Human hands didn’t circumcise you. Christ did. – Col.2:11. It’s possible in a moment of weakness to fall back to Romans 7 and live as though we still have a sin nature, but we can decide to live in Romans 8 because we don’t really have one.

Why does God allow the enemy to inhibit, prevent, stall, interrupt, interfere with, His work on Earth. Paul mentioned that he had wanted to go somewhere but the devil had stopped him. Why does God allow this?

As a new Christian, I was taught that when we become a Christian God gives us a special gift to use for his honor and glory. Is it true that God gives us a specific gift other than, of course, the gift of the Holy Spirit within us? I think that if we’re allowed to ask the Lord questions when we get to heaven, my first question will be “Lord, what was my gift” because I’ve totally missed it in this life.