1 John 2:22 says, “Who is the liar? It is the man who denies that Jesus is the Christ. Such a man is the antichrist — he denies the Father and the Son.” What is the meaning of “such a man is the antichrist” in this verse? Is this the spirit of the antichrist as said elsewhere? Or something else?

Your answers to questions have cleared up many areas of Bible prophecy in which I was confused or just did not understand. You are a blessing to all of us who desire to understand God’s prophetic word. May God continue to bless your ministry! I recently read on your site, that you believe that many Roman Catholics are saved. Would you please share your belief of this, my heart has been heavily burdened for Roman Catholics, and any encouragement you could provide would be a true ministry to me.

The message at our church last week centered around James 1:22-25 be doers of the Word and not hearers only. I can’t help but think that this was a plea for a works based faith to help the church building and keeping our good works confined within the walls of the building. Of course, sprinkled within the message was to help the person in a broken down car on the side of the road, etc. but the pastor kept coming back to our church and doing the Word.

The Bible says in Genesis 1:27: “So God created man in his own image, in the image of God he created him; male and female he created them.” (RSV) If we are created in God’s image where does the sin nature each of us has come from?

Re: Jeremiah 33:17 “For thus says the Lord: ‘David shall never lack a man to sit on the throne of the house of Israel.” Is Jeremiah 33:17 a prophecy of Jesus’ rule during the Millennium (not something to be taken literally regarding David and his descendants, as David does not currently have a descendant on the throne)? When was the Davidic line ended? When will it re-start? I believe that I heard a popular Bible teacher state that King David himself (literally) will rule for a time after we are resurrected….is this possible?

Re: Matt. 9:16-17 I understand the literal meaning of these verses but don’t understand the point Jesus was making in the context of the chapter. Could you shed some light on this please?

How do we tell the difference between God’s confirmation and coincidence? Or wishful thinking? I know that He uses other people a lot of the time, but is that the only way? Any insight you have would be much appreciated.

My question concerns the letter to the church by James, especially James 2:14-2:26. This sounds to me like a works based salvation and not only faith based. It seems to me the letters to the Jewish Christians puts forward a work based salvation and the letters by Paul a faith based salvation. Is not the letters written to the Jewish Christians written to those that will be in the great tribulation? If you look at the salutation it does not mention the church but the tribes of Israel.

My understanding of fasting is not eating anything, neither food nor water. I mean not putting anything in your mouth that will go to your stomach. Now I read some of your responses on fasting and I’m puzzled to a point of slight disagreement. You mentioned Daniel fasting for 21 days but I don’t see in the Bible that being declared as fasting. To me, that was just Daniel’s decision to avoid eating defiled food offered to idols by Babylonian King. Fasting to me is purely not eating anything, and if someone is not eating certain foods while eating others that’s not fasting.

How are believers supposed to treat verses such as: “But if you do not forgive men their trespasses, neither will your Father forgive your trespasses.” (Matthew 6:15) Is it guaranteed that the Holy Spirit will be successful in the sanctification process to rid us of habitual unforgiveness? If not, would the Father not forgiving us affect our salvation?