Lately I’ve been conversing with a lot of rather vehement atheists–which tend to come with my line of work–and they’ve frequently confronted me with arguments that I know are weak, but I don’t have a good, biblical response and I don’t know where to look for one really. They are referring to Leviticus and Deuteronomy and all the laws within them about how to live, what to wear, what to eat, who to stone, and on and on. They call Christianity (and Judaism) barbaric for calling for the death sentence for these seemingly mild crimes.

What do I tell them? They would never accept a “God knows better than we do” sort of answer and they want more than a “You’re taking the verses out of context.” I know they’re just basing their argument on anti-religion websites, but there are unfortunately fewer good apologetic sites than there are anti-Christian ones.

In short: How do I explain Levitical law to an atheist?

I have a question I hope you can help me with. My wife was Christian all her life and accepted Jesus as her savior a few years ago. It changed her life. She asked her pastor to baptize her but every time something happened. They use a lake because they don’t have a place in the church so bad whether stopped it one time and sickness another time.

Anyhow it never got done she was killed in a car accident 4 months ago. She was only 35 and this has been eating at me ever since. Would God keep her out of heaven because she was never baptized?

I was born and raised Catholic but since the accident, I have read the Bible and done a lot of research. I don’t consider my self a Catholic anymore. Do I need to be baptized?

Are the Christians of today included in the group that will rule with Jesus in the New Jerusalem during the Millennium? It is unclear to me because Rev. 20:4 mentions “beheaded” Christians during the Tribulation period and I’m not sure if when Jesus was speaking to His disciples about them ruling with Him if that includes the Christians of today.

Thank you in advance for your time and any light you are able to shed on this question.

I have been having a discussion related to end times with a pastor and he mentioned to me that he does not think all prophecy is meant to be understood and he referenced 1Co 13:9,12; and 1 Jn 3:2.

What is your position on this and is there any scripture to back up a competing position that it is all understandable? I would think the purpose of having it, and all scripture, is to provide us with some sort of knowledge about God. I agree that perhaps its not the full picture and God reserves some information. I’m not sure how to respond to his interpretations. Any help would be greatly appreciated!!

I am curious, I had a dream last night, I saw the words Revelation 111 (I’m not sure if it’s 1:11 or 11:1) & also the numbers 648, again I don’t know if it is 6:48 or another book, 64:8. Are there any connections with these things to current times that this could be a sign of something coming or something I should be doing?

This really has me in a quandary. I am just beginning to read & learn the Bible; I have always been a strong believer in God & obviously, based only on faith since I’m not as familiar with the bible as most.

A brother asked me a very good question (loaded as well) about why aren’t we performing the miracles as in the days of the apostles. I have heard of some great miracles being performed in other countries, but why not in America? In Mark 16:17 it states these signs shall follow them that believe… where has our faith gone? The Lord says He is not a respecter of persons, so I know if He can use Peter and Paul He can use me as well. Is it a matter of our faith not being at a certain level, or can it have something to do with our condition in this country? Meaning if we get sick, the first thing we reach over for is the medicines not the Oil.

Thank you kindly for being an obedient servant of the Lord. Your site is a blessing to visit every day and learn from.

Here are a few questions I’d really like to know the answer to. First, where did Noah live when he built the ark? Secondly, the Bible teaches us there were 4 Great Rivers from Genesis. The earth was greatly changed due to the global flood and the releasing of the great fountains of the deep. How do we know the Tigris and Euphrates Rivers that are named today are the ones mentioned in Genesis? How was it possible for Noah and/or his sons to recognize them after such a global change? Lastly, if those are the two original rivers, why not name the other two found in Genesis? Why should their names not be used? Or, did this have something to do with the confusion in languages from Babel?

I hope your gift in explaining things simple and easy to understand can also be used with these questions. I adore Genesis and I try to always be ready with an answer if someone asks me.

I recently discovered your website and have been reading the many questions posed to you, and your illuminating answers. It has been very helpful to me. I have a question, as well, having to do with the Epistle of Jude, verses 14 and 15, in which he quotes a prophecy from Enoch, the 7th from Adam. Here Jude is quoting First Enoch 1:9, from an apocryphal book deemed by early church scholars not to be inspired by God…and yet, Jude includes Enoch’s prophecy in his Epistle, which IS part of the canon of Scripture! How can this be? Your answer would be greatly appreciated.

1st Samuel 28:3 tells us that Samuel was dead. Further in that chapter the Bible tells us that Saul went to see a medium and ask her to ‘bring up’ Samuel. In 28:16 it tells us that Samuel spoke to Saul through this woman, she said she saw him coming up out of the ground. Wasn’t Samuel a man of God? Fortune telling and mediums are condemned by God, why was this practiced being used by His men?

If God cannot abide in the presence of sin. How is it the book of Job describes Satan as coming with the angels who present themselves to the Lord?