I have a quick question about the BEMA judgment. I believe the BEMA is a judgment of works, not of salvation, that occurs shortly after the rapture and takes place in heaven for christians only? My question is, will there be regret in heaven? Will christians who did not do much for the Lord on earth be regretful in heaven after the BEMA? If so, wouldn’t that allow sorrow to persist in heaven and worse throughout eternity? At the same time, I see passages like Revelation 21:4 that say there will be no more sorrow. How does this work?

I see no God in my life. He says to Love Him. How about showing us His Love. I am sick & tired of living. I have suffered my mental illness and many other physical and mental issues all my life and what for? I am in a marriage where my conditions make life for my wife hell and I do not want to continue on this way. We have prayed for years and so have others for Divine Intervention in our marriage and in my life and as of today which is our 24th marriage Anniversary, I am just worn out trying to love an unlovable God. All I see in this world is the destruction of man, body & soul. God is nowhere to be found. Why does the Bible say one thing and yet it does nothing what it says God will do? Why should I go on living in an ungodly World and a God who does hear the screams of prayer toward Him? No one seems to be able to answer my questions and I am tired of waiting on God to deliver me from my anger, fears and etc. You would think that after 30 years as a Christian he would answer me, but alas he does not.

My husband had a business partner for 6 years and that partner embezzled money etc. then pushed him out of the company. We know the bible says not to take your brother to court. If it boils down to if he’s a Christian or not, that is questionable because he holds to a works-based belief.

In Matt. 8:28-34 Jesus cast a number of demons out of 2 men in into a herd of pigs who then plunged into the Sea of Galilee. Mark and Luke both say there was only one man and locate the event in a different place.

Is this the same event, a contradiction, or just a different aspect from the Gospel writers being told? Are Gergesenes and Gadarenes the same? Did Luke focus on the one man and the details about him rather than two men like Matthew and Mark do?

I happened to run across a web site where a man is stating that the ‘last trumpet’ is at the end of the Tribulation and that a man in the 1800’s called John Nelson Darby changed the timing of the Rapture to before the Tribulation but before that it was believed it would happen at the end of the Tribulation. I may not be explaining what this man said very well but I think I got the general gist of it. You’ve probably heard of this man and what he believes. Please could you explain why he is wrong.

Where in the world are our rabbis? I am amazed at the information I was never given in a church building. I have learned more in the past three years online (and doing other research) about the symbolism, and the prophecies, and just the basic social implications of the stories in the Bible than I ever got at a church in all my 41 years. It’s like comparing watery Kool-Aid to the best wine ever made. Why, why, why didn’t anyone ever teach me any of this stuff? I’ve been starving for this information all my life and didn’t even know it was there—I just figured there was too much mystery in the Bible for me to ever really understand much of it. The information you provide is one of the invaluable sources I have come to trust and rely upon–I just wanted you to know how much I appreciate you.

I have been told there are 3 tithes mentioned in the Old Testament(one being the 10% that many Christians practice). Would you please explain what the other 2 are and do they have relevance today?

I have a question about something I just read on a well known prophecy website. The commentator was not addressing this subject specifically, but stated that:

“Prior to the death of Christ on the cross, it was only necessary that man believe in Who Jesus said He was. Proof of this revelation is evidenced through the testimony of Peter and the testimony of the thief on the cross. (See Mark 8:29 and Luke 23:42)

Now I do not know how exactly he meant this, but it makes it appear that the gospel Jesus preached in John 3:16 and John 6:29 changed after the cross. He could not be referring to Old Testament saints because of his scripture references. If this were to be true then we would have problems in dealing with difficult passages regarding salvation that occur after the gospels. Can you address this?

I have a question about the following verses:

“Consider it pure joy, my brothers, whenever you face trials of many kinds because you know that the testing of your faith develops perseverance.” (James 1:2)

“In this you greatly rejoice, though now for a little while you may have had to suffer grief in all kinds of trials. These have come so that your faith; of greater worth than gold, which perishes even though refined by fire, may be proved genuine and may result in praise, glory, and honor when Jesus Christ is revealed.”(1Peter 1:6,7)

These two verses always used to back why God allows suffering in a believer’s life. When you wrote about Job, you said God doesn’t cause us to suffer arbitrarily, but when we have unconfessed sins in our lives and are out of fellowship, He, being perfectly just, has to allow Satan to torment us. So I don’t understand the true meaning of the verses and they distress me. What is the right perspective?

I have just read a question from someone else to you and need to check something. Basically it was asking about sin and you said obviously we need to confess our sins.

Most times when I sin, like laugh at someone else’s misfortune or say something nasty I immediately think I shouldn’t have done that and say sorry to the Lord in my head. Is this enough? What should I be doing if not?

Thank you very much, all the questions and your answers are helping me greatly.