Regarding your interpretation of Matthew 7:1, you seem to render the context to imply that this verse is broadly speaking against judgments of any kind. We sin so we can’t judge sin in another. But the context of Matthew 7 reveals that Jesus was mainly concerned with hypocrisy and not sin in general. “You hypocrite, first take the plank out of your own eye, and then you will see clearly to remove the speck from your brother’s eye.” (Matthew 7:5) Also in the same sermon 7:15-23 Jesus warns his disciples to watch out for false prophets, that we ought to judge these by their fruits i.e. actions.

Did Jesus create wine at the wedding, saving the best for last? Or did he create Grape Juice out of water? It’s my opinion that he made wine. What’s yours?

I have one question. I have read on the site that Revelation 21 takes place during the millennium and that the Church will live in the New Jerusalem (which will orbit the earth) while Israel and the tribulation saints live on the new heaven and earth. The thought is that Revelation 21:1 is referring to Isaiah 65:17.

The theory makes a lot of sense, but I noticed something. Revelation 21:4 says that “there shall be no more death”, while Isaiah 65:20 indicates that there will still be sin and death during the millennium. In fact, Revelation 21:4 seems to categorically say that death, sorrow, crying, and pain have been done away with forever, “for the former things are passed away”. But if there is still sin and death in Isaiah 65, then death, sorrow, crying, and pain haven’t been done away yet, for where there is sin and death there is sorrow and pain.

What are your thoughts on this? It is hard for me to match Revelation 21 to Isaiah 65; to me they seem to be discussing two different new earths – one that has death, and one that does not. Thank you very much for your site! I have immensely enjoyed it since I discovered it a few months ago and have learned a great deal. I am very thankful for your ministry.

I have been a born again Christian for about 7 months now and have taken to the scriptures like crazy reading and learning. One thing I have not been able to clearly understand in all my reading so far is why man is God’s greatest creation. I understand we were made in His image and he actually breathed life into us but how are we actually a more prized creation than say angels for example? They have free will just as we do from what I understand, yet God gave us (man) a way to find redemption where as the angels did not after rebellion. Can you clarify how we are a more prized creation than any other?

You have written: “Our unconfessed sins can’t make God change His mind about saving us, but it can and does hinder our current relationship with Him. And because God is faithful to the promise He made to His Son, forgiveness is ours just for the asking. Once we ask, we’re immediately purified from all unrighteousness; we again become as holy as God is, our relationship is restored to its former intimacy and we are blessed.” But if we’re already forgiven why do we have to ask again?

During a recent discussion about the Apostles Creed, the question came up as to why Jesus descended into hell before He rose from the dead. One of the proposed answers was that it was so that Jesus could take the keys to hell and death from Satan. However, we are unable to locate any scripture to support this proposed answer. We do find that in Revelation 1:18, He has the keys to hell and death. When and how did He get them?

When Christ was on the cross and he looked at the Roman soldiers who were killing him and said, “Forgive them Father, for they know not what they do.” Does this mean that God forgave them and they will be in heaven or did he just forgive them for those sins and not the ones afterward?

Where do believers go after death? Do they go straight to heaven, or a lower level of heaven, or a waiting room? In 1 Thessalonians it talks about the dead in Christ rising. Where do dead believers rise from?

Comparing the references to water in John 3:5 and 1 John 5:6: The John 3:5 reference is considered by many (and I agree) to mean physical birth, yet the 1 John 5:6 reference is considered by some to mean baptism. I believe that 1 John was written, in part, to refute false teaching and to stress that Jesus did come in the flesh. Because of that, it seems that there would be consistency in the usage of the word ‘water’ between the two passages with each one referring to physical birth. Can you point out what I’m missing?

Recently the topic of fear came up in a family discussion. I made the statement that it isn’t wrong to be afraid. (ie: night before surgery, facing a dangerous situation like cancer) What is wrong is if we allow fear to overpower us. Being fearful and stepping out in faith anyway shows our trust in God that he is going to do what he says. Can you help me back this up with scripture?