If a believer marries again after a divorce, is that person living in a perpetual state of sin?

In Matthew 12: 30-32 Jesus is talking to the Jews, explaining a sin that cannot be forgiven. I understand all sins were forgiven at the cross, but in verse 32b he mentions “the age to come”. I assume that age to be the Kingdom Age as being the next age to come for the Jews. Am I correct in this thinking? And if so what does this mean for the Jews?

After a lot of searching, we found a small country church that we thought would accept us. I was even voted in as a deacon after we’d been there for several years. But gradually, I started to suspect I was being shut out from the workings of church business, and I began wondering why I was ever asked to be a deacon in the first place. Since we live outside the community, I’m puzzled why we still bother to attend, but I was told if we leave we would be forsaking the assembly, using Hebrews 10:25 as the authority. I’m at a loss. Would we be guilty of violating Hebrews 10:25 by leaving?

“The mountains and the hills shall break forth before you into singing, and all the trees of the field shall clap their hands.” (Isaiah 55:12)

Is this the new Jerusalem? When we are completely free from sin, and put on Christ completely and be like Him as He is, will we have power and closeness to the creation where we hear mountains/hills sing and trees clap their hands? To think all material things that bring joy but not everlasting is to be replaced with creation makes my heart leap. Surely to hear a mountain speak must be simply divine.

Rev. 15 mentions a temple in heaven, and I am not clear on this. It is my understanding that it is there that God resides on his throne. Is there an actual temple or is heaven a template of a temple? Also, I understand that the temple contains an Ark of the Covenant. I look forward to your comments on this chapter.

Why is the tribe of Dan is not mentioned in Revelation chapter 7? What happened?

Re: Romans 3:30. ” Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith.” It is obviously differentiated between “by faith” and “through faith” as if the former is for the Jews, and the latter is for us. Can you shed some light upon this?

I was looking on the web for the beatitudes when I stumbled upon them in the Catholic Encyclopedia. I was shocked when I read there that they have substituted the word “righteousness” with “justice.” To me these are very different things. When we speak of justice we usually mean redress in a legal sense. If you commit a crime against me I desire justice, for example. But when I think of righteousness I think of a divine attribute that can only be gained via relationship and bestowal from God through Christ. (Rom 3:10 & 2 Cor 5:21.) So it seems to me that the Catholic Encyclopedia is substituting a man-to-man relationship for a man-to-God necessity. What are your thoughts on this?

This is a salvation question. When we look at salvation in both the Old Testament and New Testament, a person is saved by faith: In the OT a person’s faith was based on the promised coming redeemer. In the NT, it is also based on faith in the person and work of Jesus Christ. Yet in your response to a question on “The Backslidden Believer“, you responded with “The Old Covenant was a conditional relationship based on obedience and a person who became disobedient was said to have turned away from the Lord.” Are you saying that those saved in the OT was based on works and not faith – somewhat confused – can you please clarify?

Is there anything in Scripture with regards to being a disciple and being in debt? With debt being a master of sorts, is it possible that Jesus would “give the go ahead” for someone to be a disciple while in debt? I know it’s been done and is still being done but is it right?