Re: Matt. 18:15-17. I read these verses in William Barclay’s commentary in which he essentially says these have been misapplied. He further states that the language indicates to him that Jesus could not have said this in that specific way, i.e., it sounds too legalistic for Jesus, and sounds more like an ecclesiastic committee’s work. Also, Jesus would not say to take the matter to the Church, since the Church was not yet existent. This throws me a bit on the basis of inerrancy, so it must be some kind of interpretation that stands. Your thoughts?

I have always believed the Bible is inerrant, but I’m puzzled by the apparent discrepancy between the accounts in Matthew and Luke of the healing of the centurion’s servant: did the centurion meet with Jesus or not?

We all know that there are different methods of interpreting Scripture. Some “spiritualize” it and attribute it to allegory. Others, such as me and you interpret Scripture “literally, historically and grammatically.” Is there any place in Scripture where God told us how he wanted us to interpret his Word? How did we come to the consensus that Scripture was to be interpreted “this” way as opposed to “that” way?

Could you please explain who decided what books would be in the bible? And when was this decided?

I think I understand the basis for the validity of the Bible, and why arguments against it don’t hold up. However, I did have an issue that I don’t feel comfortable answering yet.

How would you answer a person who asked why God wouldn’t also “inspire” the copyists of the original manuscripts since God is omniscient and therefore knew that these were the (very important) copies which would be referenced for billions of people in the future? We take it by faith that the original manuscripts are absolutely perfect and without error because we don’t have the originals with us now, because we believe God is able to inspire his writers (from OT to NT times.)

I became pregnant with my high school sweetheart and we got married. Four years later I met another man and fell in love. I left my first husband and married this man, committing adultery. I could give excuses for why I left my first husband but there really is no excuse for what I did. I know it was wrong.

After my second husband and I had been married about 2 years we also had a child and I started feeling very guilty about what I had done to my first husband. I went back and asked him to forgive me and told him I would come back if he wanted me to, but that I would have to bring my new baby.

He said he forgave me but didn’t want me to come back. I feel like I did what I could to fix things. I don’t want to go to hell and I don’t want any one else to go to hell because of any thing I’ve done.

Later I was baptized and promised God that no matter what happened I would never get another divorce. Now my second husband and I are getting ready to celebrate our 24th wedding anniversary. The question is, am I living in sin because my first husband is still living, or has God forgiven my sin?

Concerning the fate of the lost: Punishment does not mean the same as punishing. If one is burned up and ceases to be, the punishment is eternal. If the burning was to go on for that individual forever, would it not be called “eternal punishing? The death penalty is different from life imprisonment with no parole. It has been said that Adam was created with eternal life but lost it for all of us. Since then, all humans are born with a body and soul but have to believe (born again) in order to receive eternal life. How then can the unsaved then live forever?

In Daniel 8:21, the angel Gabriel explains that the king of Greece, Alexander the Great, is represented by the shaggy goat in Daniel’s vision. Knowing that scripture doesn’t just give information this detailed for no reason, I was wondering why Alexander the Great is represented as a goat, and is there any significance in the fact that the goat is shaggy?

The Bible tells us that Jesus appeared to many people after his resurrection. Thomas touched his body and Jesus ate fish with his followers. Obviously, it was a physical body. In what state did the Lord Jesus ascend to Heaven to be seated at the right hand of God the Father, physical or spiritual, and in what state is he in now as far as his body is concerned?

In Matthew 24, do you think the disciples knew that Jesus was talking to a future group of Jews and not to them? I know it is an end time prophecy, but if I had been one of those disciples I might have thought he was talking to me and my generation.