Genesis 2:24 says “Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.”

There is not a companion verse in the Bible which expressly says that a woman should leave her father and mother, and cleave unto her husband. Yet I am sure this is implied in Genesis 2:24 and is borne out in the New Testament and in the narratives of the stories of the wives of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

Can I have your thoughts on Genesis 2:24 and its applicability to a woman in a modern-day marriage?

What is your take on Rahab the harlot of the book of Joshua being a different person than the Rahab of Matthew that married Salmon? According to R.K.Phillips, they are two distinctly different individuals. He backs his statement up using the Hebrew, and the Greek Septuagint, and the Greek of The New Testament. I have always heard they were one in the same. But there is a large gap of time that has never been accounted for. Please give me your take on this subject.

As I was reading Numbers I wondered why in chapter 26 verse 46 it mentions Asher’s daughter when Moses and Aaron were taking a census of all the males 20 years old and up for the purpose of going to war. When I Googled her I went to a website that says in Rabbinical literature that Serah was the daughter of Ashers second wife and not of his blood. She is the only female mentioned in this chapter and I was wondering if you knew anything about her and what the significance of her being mentioned here is.

I love your site and may the Lord bless you and your ministry. My question surrounds Mary, the mother of Jesus. I understand that, since the Fall in the garden of Eden, all of mankind is born with a sinful nature. Although physically a virgin, can you tell me how Mary was “purified” to make her worthy to give birth to the Messiah? Some scriptural references would help immensely.

Thank you so much for your site. I’m studying the temple of Ezekiel, and the boundaries of Israel during the Millennium and google search came up with your site. I read and took notes on your article “The Coming Temple.” Very well researched; thanks.

My questions are as follows:

1. the temple built in Shiloh … is it the temple described in Ezekiel 40-48? You confused me by saying (and I quote from your article)

“Following instructions given by Ezekiel, this Temple will be located north of Jerusalem in Shiloh.”

The instructions you are referring to, are they in Ezek. 40-48?

2. When Yahshua returns to build the fallen tent of David, which temple is that? You say that temple is Ez 40-48. Do you mean that Ezekiel describes two temples? Please clarify.

3. Have you considered the temple not made by hands? Have you considered that the tent of David could be the ‘family’ or house of David? The Greek word used here can be translated as family or house.

Thank you for your insights. I’ve been reading about the inerrancy of the Bible, or rather, of the original writings. I’ve been systematically looking up the various verses that have discrepancies and reading about the reasons for that discrepancy. In reading the answers (which are all due to copyist errors), I wonder why, if the original writings were without error, don’t the bible translators/editors go back and correct those copyist errors … why leave them in? And, if the original writings are not available, how do you know they were without error?

First, I really want to say, Praise God for this website! God has used you’re writings to really help me grow in faith with Him.

My question is. What advice would you give someone that is called to youth ministry?

Thank you very much for your time and God Bless!

Please explain to me how you come to the conclusion that the “parable of the talents” and the parable of the “sheep and goats” have to do with people only in the Tribulation. I’ve read these parables many times before and I have never gotten that message.

A follow-up question to the kosher question I recently posted: regarding the Council of Jerusalem and the four edicts sent to the Gentiles and its applicability today, how what does it mean to avoid eating blood and things strangled and how can we avoid that today?

I understand that in keeping kosher, to avoid blood would require either broiling or soaking in saltwater to remove any residual blood, but are we expected to do that today? Inevitably, there seems to be trace amount of blood in precooked meat. Also, I understand that the prohibition from things strangled may pertain to avoiding eating meat from animals that have been inhumanely slaughtered. How can we be sure in today’s world? If the blood and inhumane slaughter avoidance is to be taken to the nth degree today, how does that apply to buying meat from the market or even eating out?

My 21 yr old son was raised Baptist but now has recently been going to a Pentecostal church. This makes me a little uneasy because I believe that they believe things that are not quite right such as believing that you can lose your salvation. Baptists believe that “once saved always saved”. Now I realize that denominations are a man made thing and that you can certainly be saved and not be Baptist. Am I right in my uneasiness or wrong?