A teacher used Romans 11:22 defending the statement that to remain saved we must follow the commandments or be cut off. He also cites James 2:14and 24-26 to back this up. And if we commit “Deadly Sins” our souls are dead and a person is not saved anymore. I understand John 3:16 but there seems to be (in my mind) a contradiction. This topic really bothered me when I read it, and I almost feel like it is going to come down my individual interpretation.

My grandmother recently died and I’ve been searching for the truth about life after death. Usually a church says,”She went to heaven with the Lord” but then why would the dead in Christ rise first if they’re already in heaven with Jesus. I need some sort of Scriptural evidence of what really happens after death. Please help.

Question: Regarding the Man of Lawlessness (Anti-Christ) and the confirmation of a covenant (Dan 9:27), almost exclusively I have been taught that this reference is to a 7-year treaty that is “confirmed” by the Antichrist which kicks off the 70th week of Daniel.

However, Dan 9:27 mentions he “confirms” a covenant . It doesn’t mention its duration. In the middle of the 70th week, he stops sacrifice and offerings. So, we all presume it’s a 7-year treaty.

But, might not Dan 9:27 be stating exactly what it says – namely, that the Antichrist will “Confirm” (which to confirm, something must already be in place) not just a covenant, but THE Covenant. We often call the Torah the “Old Testament”, but it is also called the “Old Covenant”. And the word used in Dan 9:27 for covenant is the same one used by God in describing His promises to His people, the Jews.

In light of what you have taught about the battle of Ezekiel causing the world-wide Jews to see their relationship with God being renewed, might not the Antichrist’s confirmation of a covenant be the official re-reinstatement of the Old Testament (Covenant) practices and relationship by authorizing the rebuilding of the temple and the sacrificial system being put back in place?

Is the Eucharist really the body and blood of Christ or does it merely represent the body and blood?

I just found this web site yesterday and was impressed with what I read. I will probably be asking several questions from time to time.

One question I have now concerns Ezekiel Chapter 37. In your opinion, what people is God talking about? Is he talking about all 12 tribes or is he just talking about Judah? If this prophecy is concerning all 12 tribes, where are they now? From the information I have read, the missing twelve tribes are all over the world. Some of Israel’s enemies today could be some of those tribes. The USA probably was founded by descendants of the missing tribes.

This is very confusing. Thanks in advance for your insights.

I know most of us nowadays have weakened the vocabulary and true meaning of the words we say. For instance, after watching a movie someone might say “How was the movie?” “It was awesome”. They should have said it was good or it was great.

When the Bible speaks of the Lord descending from Heaven with a Shout, is there anything in the Bible that can give us a clue as to what this shout will be like? Will we just fall like dead men because it’s horrifying or will it be soothing and pleasant? How loud will it be?

I just wanted to clear something up. You’ve stated that it was the Jews themselves who caused their own blindness. If that is so, then how come Paul writes in Romans 11:9-10, “God gave them a spirit of stupor, eyes so that they could not see and ears that they could not hear”?

Paul again writes in Romans 11:25-27. “I do not want you to be ignorant of this mystery, brothers, so that you may not be conceited: Israel has experienced a hardening in part until the full number of the Gentiles has come in. And so all Israel will be saved, as it is written: The deliverer will come from Zion; he will turn godlessness away from Jacob. And this is my covenant with them when I take away their sins.”

Then explain to me what Paul meant in Romans 11:28-32, “As far as the gospel is concerned, they are enemies on your account; but as far as election is concerned, they are loved on account of the patriarchs, for God’s gifts and his call are irrevocable.”

I’ve heard of several variations and discrepancies in the NIV Bible. I haven’t studied them all in-depth, but there is one that has me greatly concerned. Romans 8:1 in the NIV states, “There is now, therefore, no condemnation to those who are in Christ Jesus. (Period). Yet, in the NKJV, it says no condemnation to those who are in Christ Jesus, (Comma) who walk not according to the flesh, but according to the Spirit. To me, this lays out an entirely different context of the same verse for each version you read. Please explain.

I understand that the first abomination of desolation rendered the temple unfit for used in about 167BC and that the altar to the pagan god Zeus Olympus was set up in about 168BC by Antiochus Epiphanes prefiguring a similar abomination that Jesus Christ predicted would be erected in Matthew 24:15. In Revelation 13:5-7, the antichrist is seen in the future to make war with the church! Before the rapture, will the present church undergo prosecution like in the days of the first abomination when worshipers in the temple in Jerusalem were falling by the sword, burned, captured, or plundered?

In 1 Cor. 13:1-5 Paul is adamant that without ” Love” none of the other efforts will matter. Who is he wanting us to “Love” and what is his definition of “Love”?