Regarding John10:10, “The thief comes but to steal, and to kill and to destroy”. Contextually, it seems that Jesus was referring to the Jewish religious leaders and projecting into the future warning believers about false teachers and doctrines. Is it also correct to attribute this to Satan? I know that this is his nature.

A recent article I read that claims that there is a certain ethnic group with DNA segments that come from Neanderthals. Is it possible that Neanderthals were actually related to the Nephilim or to the corruption of the flesh that is spoken of as occurring in those times before the flood? Is it possible that some of this DNA was carried onto the ark by one of the wives of Noah’s sons? Wouldn’t this explain the second incursion of Nephilim spoken of in Genesis?

I have a question regarding traditions within the Church. I have been having discussions with friends and family about the traditions of Catholicism, Orthodox, Protestant, etc.. We have gone back and forth about the importance of tradition, and how it can be good and edifying, or empty and meaningless. In your opinion, is adherence to tradition necessary to be in right relationship with Christ?

Why do you suppose God told us why there are different languages but not why there are different races? The different races is an argument atheists use for evolution.

Help me understand what is being said in Matthew 7:19 vs 1 Cor 3:11-15. In Matthew, I know the Lord is speaking of false prophets, but in doing so, He seems to be giving us the definition of a “good tree”. It brings forth good fruit. And if it does not do that, it will be cut down and cast into the fire. I take this to mean if a believer (a “good tree”) doesn’t do any good works (“good fruit”), he will end up in Hell. But in 1Cor 3:15, Paul is saying that if a believer doesn’t have any good works (they were burned up), he will suffer the loss of rewards (at the Bema seat?) but will still be saved. Thank you in advance for the help.

You have mentioned several of your studies and recordings that the Lord’s wrath starts in Rev 6. In light of the Lord declaring that it is He Himself is executing His judgments on the surrounding nations that are hate’n on Israel (pre-req for Eze 38), wouldn’t it be more scriptural to include these judgments as the starting point of His Wrath?

I understand that man is created in God’s image, meaning that man has an eternal spirit. Wouldn’t that mean the angels were also created in God’s image? What is the difference then between man and angels if, after temporarily inhabiting physical bodies, man then becomes a spirit being? Or does man become a physical being again inhabiting a physical place?

I noticed that you said in another article that the dead bodies of believers won’t be brought back to life at the rapture. I don’t understand because both I Thessalonians 4 and I Corinthians 15 say “the dead in Christ shall rise first.”If their bodies won’t be brought back to life how do the dead rise?

In “Another Dispensation?” you said, “The primary difference between Law and Grace was that before the cross a believer was required to express his or her faith by keeping the Law.” [last sentence]. What do you mean by “keeping the Law” ? James 2:10 says – “For whoever keeps the whole law but fails in one point has become guilty of all of it.”

I believe that the Word of God is a Word that is intolerant (basically it’s His way or perish). That being said can you help us understand the difference between man’s tolerance and God’s mercy? I believe them to be on totally different ends of the spectrum. Can God be tolerant? I believe not, but yes He is Merciful.